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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Java and Middleware
Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Total Questions: 216 Q&As
1Z0-803 dumps
QUESTION 1
A method doSomething () that has no exception handling code is modified to trail a method that throws a checked exception. Which two modifications, made independently, will allow the program to compile?
A. Catch the exception in the method doSomething().
B. Declare the exception to be thrown in the doSomething() method signature.
C. Cast the exception to a RunTimeException in the doSomething() method.
D. Catch the exception in the method that calls doSomething().
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps
Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Given a java source file:
1Z0-803 dumps
What changes will make this code compile? 1Z0-803 dumps (Select Two)
A. Adding the public modifier to the declaration of class x
B. Adding the protected modifier to the x() constructor
C. Changing the private modifier on the declaration of the one() method to protected
D. Removing the Y () constructor
E. Removing the private modifier from the two () method
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String h1 = “Bob”;
String h2 = new String (“Bob”);
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 = = h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two are valid declarations of a two-dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array2D;
B. int [2] [2] array2D;
C. int array2D [];
D. int [] array2D [];
E. int [] [] array2D [];
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which code fragment is illegal?
1Z0-803 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two may precede the word `class’ in a class declaration?
A. local
B. public
C. static
D. volatile
E. synchronized
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which three are bad practices? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception when iterating through an array to determine when all elements have been visited
B. Checking for Error and. If necessary, restarting the program to ensure that users are unaware problems
C. Checking for File Not Found Exception to inform a user that a filename entered is not valid
D. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception and ensuring that the program can recover if one occur
E. Checking for an IOException and ensuring that the program can recover if one occurs
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Given:
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What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps
What three modifications, made independently, made to class greet, enable the code to compile and run?
A. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.keystroke stroke = new KeyStroke ( );
B. line 6 replaced with handy.*.KeyStroke = new KeyStroke ( );
C. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.KeyStroke Stroke = new handy.dandy.KeyStroke();
D. import handy.*; added before line 1
E. import handy.dandy.*; added after line 1
F. import handy.dandy,KeyStroke; added after line 1
G. import handy.dandy.KeyStroke.typeException(); added before line 1
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate false value for its declared type.
F. An exception occurs when the method attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Implementing NetScaler 10 for Networking and Traffic Optimization
Exam Code: 1Y0-A28
Total Questions: 123 Q&As
1Y0-A28 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?
A. VM Hosted applications
B. Streamed server OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?
A. Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B. Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C. Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D. Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. 1Y0-A28 dumps Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections. What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable ‘Direct connection to print servers’
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure ‘Username and Password’ in StoreFront.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the new virtual desktop environment. 1Y0-A28 dumps
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User’s Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CASP
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Exam Code: CAS-002
Total Questions: 532 Q&As
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 1
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks.
Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. CAS-002 dumps
Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 3
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed.
The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details.
Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. CAS-002 dumps During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 6
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working.
Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
A. PING
B. NESSUS
C. NSLOOKUP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 7
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to do the required level of encryption.
Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image.
Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: A, C

QUESTION: 9
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it.
Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. CAS-002 dumps To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization.
Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: C, E, F

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 4          100-105 dumps
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
You administer Windows 10 Enter prise desktop computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task.
You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles.
What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a standard power scheme for the sales team. You are replacing a laptop for a sale associate.
You import the power scheme onto the new laptop. 70-698 pdf
You need to App1y the power scheme.
What should you do?
A. Modify the power scheme under Power and Sleep settings.
B. Run the gpupdate /F command.
C. Run the powercfg /S command.
D. Modify the advanced power settings.
Correct Answer: C
70-698 dumps
QUESTION 3                   70-698 dumps
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso. lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. Windows Custom Policy(Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the lnternet by using Direct Access. Your company wants to deploy a new App1ication to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements:  70-698 pdf
The App1ication is able to access files stored on an internal solid-state drive (SSD) on the tablets.
The App1ication is isolated from other App1ications.
The App1ication uses the least amount of disk space on the tablet.
You need to deploy the new App1ication to the tablets.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the App1ication as an App1ication Virtualization (App-V) package. lnstall the App-V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the App1ication as a published App1ication on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. lnstall the App1ication on a local drive on the tablets.
D. lnstall the App1ication in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. lnstall Hyper-V on tablets. lnstall the App1ication on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the App1ication to Windows Store.
G. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso. com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso. com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users. 70-698 dumps
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client File System cache.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso. com. The domain contains Windows 10 Enterprise client computers.
Your company has a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. Each user has a mailbox that is stored in Office 365 and a user account in the contoso. com domain. Each mailbox has two email addresses.
You need to add a third email address for each user.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the E-mail attribute for each user.
B. From Microsoft Azure Active Directory Module for Windows Power Shell, run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trust, add a UPN suffix for each user.
D. From the Office 365 portal, modify the Users settings of each user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your Windows 10 Enterprise work computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. You use your domain account to log o to the computer. You use your Microsoft account to log on to a home laptop. 70-698 pdf
You want to access Windows 10 Enterprise apps from your work computer by using your Microsoft account.
You need to ensure that you are able to access the Windows 10 Enterprise apps on your work computer by logging on only once.
What should you do?
A. Add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer.
B. Enable Remote Assistance on your home laptop.
C. Connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer.
D. lnstall Sky Drive for Windows on both your home laptop and your work computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business. 70-698 dumps
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. EnsurethatthelaptopsandtabletsarerunningWindows 10Enterpriseedition.
Correct Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Microsoft MB6-892 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Microsoft Dynamics AX products MB6-892 dumps exam is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. http://www.lead4pass.com/mb6-892.html dumps exam questions and answers free try. The best and most updated Microsoft Dynamics AX MB6-892 dumps pdf training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION: 1
Which components are required in a minimum server setup for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A. Application Object Server (AOS) and Database Server
B. Application Object Server (AOS) and Report Server
C. Database Server and Analysis Server
D. Database Server and Web Server
Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what is the default TCP/IP port number used by the Application Object Server (AOS) function?
A. 1428
B. 1433
C. 2710
D. 2712
Answer: D

QUESTION: 3
In a multiple-server Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 environment, which network account can be used for the Dynamics AX Object Server Windows service? MB6-892 pdf
A. Domain name\domain account
B. NT AUTHORITY\Local Service account
C. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 user account
D. Microsoft SQL Server Database Owner account
Answer: A
MB6-892 dumps
QUESTION: 4             MB6-892 dumps
What type of account is required to integrate other applications with Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A. .NET Business Connector Proxy account
B. AOS Service account
C. Microsoft SQL Server Database Engine account
D. Workflow Execution account
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following components will run only on a 64-bit operating system? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012
B. Help Server
C. Synchronization Service
D. Web Services
Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is required to run Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 in an Active Directory environment? MB6-892 pdf
A. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed within the same domain.
B. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed on each user’s workstation.
C. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed in a Cloud configuration.
D. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed in a Windows Terminal Server configuration.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
Which of the following web browsers meet the minimum requirements for client computers to access Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? (Choose all that apply.) MB6-892 dumps
A. Mozilla Firefox 2
B. Mozilla Firefox 3.5
C. Windows Internet Explorer 7
D. Windows Internet Explorer 8
E. Windows Internet Explorer 9
Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION: 8
Which Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 tool should you use to troubleshoot performance issues?
A. Debugger
B. Development Workspace Tools
C. Management Utilities
D. Trace Parser
Answer: D

QUESTION: 9
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 MB6-892 pdf, to which types of internal organizations can the Centralized Payments hierarchy purpose be assigned?
A. all party entities
B. only legal entities
C. only operating units
D. only teams
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following operating units is used for financial reporting and is based on industries or product lines that the organization serves independently of legal entities? MB6-892 dumps
A. business unit
B. cost center
C. department
D. value stream
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Question No : 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 2
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Answer: D,F

Question No : 4
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Answer: B,D

Question No : 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Answer: D

Question No : 7
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Answer: B,D

Question No : 8
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 dumps
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following? (choose three)
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Question No : 1
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.

Question No : 2
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer : D,E

Explanation:
Port States There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
200-155
Question No : 3            200-155
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer : B

Explanation:
Cisco ACI is a comprehensive SDN architecture. This policy-based automation solution supports a business-relevant application policy language, greater scalability through a distributed enforcement system, and greater network visibility. These benefits are achieved through the integration of physical and virtual environments under one policy model for networks, servers, storage, services, and security.

Question No : 4
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer : B

Question No : 5
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 1024
Answer : B

Question No : 6
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Answer : D

Explanation:
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips. When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address. Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use the 200-155 Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive a response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address Ipconfig has already done so in order to generate the report. It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP address of the network host to which you want to connect.

Question No : 7
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A.802.1d
B.802.11
C.802.1w
D.802.1x
Answer : D

Explanation:
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term ‘supplicant’ is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols. The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicants identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport’s arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.

Question No : 8
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer : B

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.

Question No : 9
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Answer : A

Question No : 10
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
Collision Domains A collision domain is an area of a single LAN where end stations contend for access to the network because all end stations are connected to a shared physical medium. If two connected devices transmit onto the media at the same time, a collision occurs. When a collision occurs, a JAM signal is sent on the network, indicating that a collision has occurred and that devices should ignore any fragmented data associated with the collision. Both sending devices back off sending their data for a random amount and then try again if the medium is free for transmission. Therefore, collisions effectively delay transmission of data, lowering the effective throughput available to a device. The more devices that are attached to a collision domain, the greater the 200-155 chances of collisions; this results in lower bandwidth and performance for each device attached to the collision domain. Bridges and switches terminate the physical signal path of a collision domain, allowing you to segment separate collision domains, breaking them up into multiple smaller pieces to provide more bandwidth per user within the new collision domains formed.

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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QUESTION 1
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
The numbers on the floor plan represent the horizontal average lux readings for nine different room areas. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the lighting conditions?
A. Only three areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only three areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. The areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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