640-875 SPNGN1: Latest Cisco CCNA SP 640-875 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Building Cisco Service Provider Next Generation Networks, Part 1 (SPNGN1) v1.2: 640-875 exam. Share the latest 640-875 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers.
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640-875 SPNGN1 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spngn1.html

Latest effective Cisco 640-875 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a Cisco switch?
A. show ip interfaces fa0/1
B. show interfaces fa0/1
C. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport
D. show ip interfaces brief
E. show interfaces switchport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 2
This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router.
Which configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?
S7#show cdp neighbors<OUTPUT OMITTED> Device ID Local Intrfce Holdtme Capability Platform Port IDPE7 Fas 0/2 163 R ASR9K Ser Gig 0/0/0/0S78 Fas
0/23 146 S I ME-3400E- Fas 0/21S8 Fas 0/21 178 S I ME-
3400E- Fas 0/21 *Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %ETHCNTR-3-
HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD: Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold. Considered as loop-back.*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting Fa0/2 in err-disable
state*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/2, changed state to down S7#show interface fa0/2FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (err-disabled) Hardware is Fast Ethernet,
address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type
is 10/100BaseTX input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters never Input queue:
0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes,
0 no buffer Received 484423 broadcasts (167203 multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 167203 multicast, 0 pause input 0 input packets with dribble condition detected
972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 PAUSE output 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces gi0/0/0/0GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down Interface state transitions: 4 Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8) Internet address is
192.168.107.70/24 MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit) reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255 Encapsulation ARPA, Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD, link type is force-up output flow control is off, input flow control is off
loopback not set, ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:00, output
00:00:35 Last clearing of “show interface” counters never 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops 172486 drops for
unrecognized upper-level protocol Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total
output drops Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets 0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 4 carrier transitions
A. Enable loopback line on the S7 Fa0/2 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
B. Enable duplex half on the PE7 Gi0/0/0/0 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
C. Change S7 Fa0/2 interface to duplex full and speed 100 then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
D. Just need to no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
E. Just need to shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 3
If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 4
Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose three.)
A. Console port
B. Modem port
C. Virtual terminal lines
D. Switch fabric interface
E. Aux port
F. ManagementEthernet0/RSP0/CPU0/0
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q5Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link. Which action must be taken to allow these two
configurations?
The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2. The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal routers of Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about classful or classless routing protocol operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information with theirrouting updates.
B. Variable-length subnet masks are supported when using classful routing protocols.
C. Examples of classless routing protocols include RIPv1, EIGRP, OSPF, andIS-IS.
D. Classful routing protocols do not support discontiguous subnets.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

 

QUESTION 7
When EIGRP is enabled on Cisco IOS XR, which EIGRP feature is on by default?
A. no auto-summary
B. stub routing
C. unequal cost paths load-balancing
D. no ip eigrp split-horizon
E. eigrp authentication
Correct Answer: AExplanation

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q8

Two routers are named R1 and R2. R1 runs Cisco IOS Software. R2 runs Cisco IOS XR Software. To form an EIGRP IPv6 adjacency between the two routers, which three configurations must you add? (Choose three.)
A. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv4 address.
B. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv6 address.
C. On R1, enter the no shutdown command inside the IPv6 EIGRP process.
D. On R1 and R2, enter the eigrp no shutdown command inside the interfaces.
E. On R1, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
F. On R2, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement about VRFs is true?
A. One interface can be a member of multiple VRFs.
B. Each VRF has its own routing table, but it has a shared FIB.
C. Each VRF has its own routing table and its own FIB.
D. Each VRF has its own routing table, and it does not have an FIB.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 10
You plan to configure NAT by using these guidelines:
Implement NAT for the inside network 192.168.1.0/128 to the range of 209.165.201.1 to 209.165.201.5/128.
Create a static association for the server 192.168.1.129 to the public IP address of 209.165.201.6.
Implement PAT for the IP address range of 192.168.2.0/24 with the outside interface.
Which commands should you use to configure NAT?
A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 0.0.0.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description
PublicWan
ip nat outside
B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA overload
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q11

How many IP addresses does Router1 have that are available for DHCP clients?
A. 100
B. 99
C. 254
D. 199
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of ICMP message is generated when a datagram is discarded because the TTL reaches a value of 0?
A. Type 0 (Echo Reply)
B. Type 12 (Parameter Problem)
C. Type 11 (Time Exceeded)
D. Type 16 (Information Reply)
E. Type 10 (Source Quench)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 13
In IPv6, which kind of record is used for reverse lookups?
A. nibble
B. AAAA
C. PTR
D. APL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q14

A Cisco IOS Router has the configuration that is shown in the exhibit. The Cisco IOS Router is replaced by a Cisco IOS XR device. To duplicate the IPv6 EIGRP parameters of the Cisco IOS Router, which configuration should you use on the
Cisco IOS XR device?
A. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
B. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv6
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
C. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
ipv6 eigrp 100
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
ipv6 router eigrp 100
!
ipv6 router eigrp 100
no shutdown
exit
commit
D. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
commit
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
commit
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
commit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 15
DOCSIS architecture includes which two primary components? (Choose two.)A. a DSL modem
B. a cable modem
C. CMTS
D. UMTS
E. an IP PBX
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

 

QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag the WAN technologies from the left and drop them on the correct descriptions on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q16Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag the PPPoE negotiation steps from the left and drop them in order on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q17Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 18
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q18 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-4 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-5 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-6Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 19
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q19 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-4Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 20
At what layer of the OSI model is the Label Distribution Protocol present?
A. data link
B. transport
C. application
D. presentation
E. session
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 21
Which subnetwork mask should be used in a point-to-point link in order to use IPv4 address block more efficiently?
A. 209.165.201.0/32
B. 209.165.201.0/31
C. 209.165.201.0/30
D. 209.165.201.0/29
E. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-5Customer A site 1 is reporting to the service provider that they cannot reach Customer A site 2 networks.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. one of the PE routers is adding summarization incorrectly
B. incorrect network statement
C. ospf area-id configured incorrectly
D. configuration missing subnets keyword
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 23
Which three are features present on both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose three.)
A. connectivity tests
B. address assignment
C. information error messaging
D. address resolution
E. mobile IPv4 support
F. multicast group management
G. mobile IPv6 support
H. fragmentation needed notification
Correct Answer: ACH
Explanation

 

QUESTION 24
Company policy only allows SSH for remote access into Cisco routers. Which configuration would only allow SSH?
A. access-lists 101 deny tcp any eq telnet
B. transport input SSH
C. access-class 101 in
D. access-class 101 out
E. transport preferred SSH
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 25
You are designing a network in accordance with the hierarchical network design model. The distribution layer provides which three functionalities? (Choose three.)
A. workgroup segmentation
B. high-speed switching
C. connectivity to workstations
D. policy-based connectivity
E. WAN connection aggregation at the edge
F. 802.1x security
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 26
You have a LAN that has three computers. The computers are connected by a switch. The computers are in the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Which network device enables you to connect the LAN to the Internet?
A. a switch
B. a hub
C. a router
D. a DSL modem in bridge mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 27
You plan to implement QoS on a network, using these four classes:
A class for real-time applications
A class for interactive applications
A class for batch applications
A scavenger class
Which two classes are interactive applications? (Choose two.)
A. email
B. SSH
C. database updates
D. IP telephony
E. file transfers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 28
Which command assigns an IP address to the Loopback1 interface on a Cisco IOS Router?
A. ip address 192.168.41.111 255.255.255.240
B. set ip 127.0.0.1/32
C. ip address 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 169.254.47.81 255.255.0.0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 29
You are configuring manual route summarization in EIGRP. Which two networks are summarized into 10.134.17.64/27? (Choose two.)
A. 10.134.17.64 255.255.255.240
B. 10.134.17.100/30
C. 10.134.17.0 255.255.255.128
D. 10.134.17.92/30
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

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642-889 SPEDGE: Latest Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-889 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Edge Network Services (SPEDGE): “642-889 exam“. Share the latest 642-889 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 642-889 pdf online Download, 642-889 YouTube video online learning to improve skills! Ciscoexampdf share 30 Practice test questions for FREE! Get the full 642-889 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/642-889.html (Total questions:126 Q&A)

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642-889 SPEDGE – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spedge.html

Latest effective Cisco 642-889 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In which Cisco IOS XR configuration mode is the redistribute static command applied to enable the redistribution of
static VRF routes between the PE routers?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-router)#
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf)#
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf-af)#
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q2PE1 and PE2 are advertising the same subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to PE3. Which PE advertised subnet is installed at the
PE3 XYZ BGP table?
A. PE2 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
B. PE2 subnet because it has the same export RT value as export RT on PE3
C. PE1 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
D. PE1 subnet because it has the same export RT value as import RT on PE3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3lead4pass 642-889 exam question q3On PE7, what is the PWtype on the p2p ac-pw named “testpw”?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. PPP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
When implementing CSC services, which two methods can be used to exchange label information between the
downstream CSC customer carrier and the CSC backbone carrier? (Choose two.)
A. using MP-BGP
B. using RSVP
C. using IGP and LDP
D. using back-to-back VRF
E. using front VRF and internal VRF
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring VPLS BGP-based autodiscovery on a Cisco IOS XE PE router. Which two configurations
must be included for proper implementation? (Choose two.)
A. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
B. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community extended
C. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
D. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community-eBGP
E. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
F. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Which CE-to-PE routing protocol implements the down bit as a loop prevention mechanism?
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for encryption that is
often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
When using the Cisco EVC software infrastructure, a double-tagged frame with a customer VLAN of 10 and a service
provider VLAN of 150 will be best matched by which encapsulation configuration?
A. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q any
B. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 150
C. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 50-200
D. encapsulation dot1q 10
E. encapsulation dot1q 150
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 642-889 exam question q9

Given the output shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The configured remote AS for neighbor 10.1.1.1 is 1234.
B. Both prefixes that are referenced by network commands will be visible with the show bgp command from the
information that is shown in the output.
C. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 cannot learn any routes from this router.
D. The router cannot learn any routes for neighbor 10.1.1.1.
E. Routes from the Internet VRF that are injected into BGP through redistribution will be advertised to neighbor
10.1.1.1.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
When implementing EoMPLS PWs, which configuration is optional?
A. matching PW ID on both ends
B. Xconnect
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. control word
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
When troubleshooting EoMPLS configuration problems, which three parameters must match between the two ends of
the pseudowire configurations? (Choose three.)
A. control word usage
B. MTU size
C. pseudowire ID
D. Xconnect group name
E. EFP subinterface number
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
A network engineer working for a very large financial institution must migrate the legacy Frame Relay and ATM virtual
circuits over a MPLS VPN solution. Which option is a benefit in choosing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN versus any other Layer 2
VPN design?
A. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design offers better scalability for large organizations.
B. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less customer edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
C. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN solution provides the possibility to implement overlapping IP addressing.
D. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less provider edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13-1

On PE7, how many multiprotocol IBGP routes are learned from PE8 and what is the next-hop IP address? (Choose
two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10.8.1.1
E. 172.16.8.1
F. 192.168.108.81
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 14
When implementing a Layer 2 transport subinterface on a Cisco IOS XR router, which encapsulation option is used to
match any packets that are not matched by any other service instances?
A. default
B. untagged
C. any
D. tag
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding Cisco 6PE operations are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The top label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
B. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
C. The top label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
D. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q16Which two descriptions outline the traffic flow among the three sites? (Choose two.)
A. The MNL site communicates with the XYZ and ABC sites.
B. The XYZ and ABC sites communicate using the default route that points to the MNL site.
C. XYZ sees the MNL and ABC routes.
D. ABC sees the MNL and XYZ routes.
E. The MNL site acts as a central site for the ABC and XYZ sites.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 17
Which two Layer 2 VPN methods support interworking between customer sites with different Layer 2 encapsulation at
each end (for example, Frame Relay to Ethernet interworking)? (Choose two.)
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. GET VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 18
A company recently completed a third company acquisition and is requesting to deploy a point- to-point VPN technology
over the IP core network to extend their IGP domain. The company core network is not MPLS-enabled yet. Which
technology matches these requirements?
A. Any Transport over MPLS
B. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol version 3
C. Virtual Private LAN Service
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Within the service provider IP/MPLS core network, what must be implemented to enable Layer 3 MPLS VPN services?
A. IS-IS or OSPF on all the PE and P routers
B. MP-BGP between the PE routers
C. RSVP on all the PE and P routers
D. targeted LDP between the PE routers
E. LDP between the CE and PE routers
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, what is used on the PE router to isolate potential overlapping routing
information between different customers?
A. route targets
B. VRFs
C. VC IDs
D. pseudowire IDs
E. pseudowire classes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which BGP extended community is used to control the distribution of VPN routing information and to identify routers that
may receive a set of routes that carry the community?
A. SOO
B. RT
C. opaque
D. route origin
E. RD
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
When implementing VPLS on Cisco routers, which data structure resembles a virtual switch and is used for learning the
MAC addresses?
A. VRF
B. VFI
C. SVI
D. BVI
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 23
When implementing EoMPLS on Cisco IOS XR routers, which command under the l2vpn configuration mode is used to
define the pseudowire?
A. pbb
B. xconnect
C. connect
D. bridge
E. bridge-domain
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24-1

On PE7, which encapsulation method is used on the pseudowire that connects to the 10.8.1.1 neighbor?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. IP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-1 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-2

On PE7, which three statements are correct regarding the MPLS VPN configurations used to support the connectivity
between the CE7 and CE8 sites? (Choose three.)
A. The RD is 1:1
B. The import and export RTs are 1:1
C. Interface GiO/0/0/0 is associated to the “default” VRF
D. The network that connects PE7to CE7 is redistributed into multiprotocol IBGP
E. The multiprotocol IBGP routes learned have a BGP origin code of “i”
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 26
When implementing H-VPLS with QinQ access on Cisco Metro Ethernet switches, which two commands enable the
QinQ tagging? (Choose two.)
A. encapsulation dot1q {customer-vlan} second-tag {sp-vlan}
B. encapsulation dot1q {sp-vlan} second-tag {customer-vlan}
C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel
D. switchport mode trunk
E. switchport access vlan {sp-vlan}
F. switchport access vlan {customer-vlan}
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
What is an advantage of using the Cisco EVC infrastructure to implement carrier-class Ethernet services that are not
available on non-EVC-capable platforms?
A. PW redundancy
B. interworking support
C. PW stitching support
D. flexible frame-matching support and VLAN tag manipulation
E. local cross-connect support
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
What is the purpose of the route distinguisher in a service provider network?
A. to identify which prefixes should be imported
B. to identify customer local prefixes
C. to identify customer global prefixes
D. to identify which prefixes should be exported from BGP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 29
The Cisco IOS XR address-family ipv4 labeled-unicast and the Cisco IOS/IOS XE neighbor send-label commands are
used in which MPLS implementation?
A. Cisco MPLS TE
B. CSC using MP-BGP for label exchange
C. back-to-back VRF
D. AToM
E. VPLS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which two protocols can be used for VPLS signaling on a Cisco IOS XR router? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. LDP
C. TDP
D. RSVP
E. PBB
Correct Answer: AB

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210-451 dumps

Hot Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud? 210-451 dumps
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? 210-451 dumps
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock? 210-451 dumps
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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70-461 dumps

Useful Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-461 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
70-461 dumps
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers=CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
An application that uses a database begins to run slowly.
Your investigation shows the root cause is a query against a read-only table that has a clustered index.
The query returns the following six columns:
One column in its WHERE clause contained in a non-clustered index Four additional columns One COUNT (*) column based on a grouping of the four additional columns
You need to optimize the statement.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
70-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate] FROM Sales.SalesOrder GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (
SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD (DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -@MaxAge, GETDATE())
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database that stores order information for an online store website. 70-461 dumps The database contains a table that is defined by the following Transact-SQL statement:
70-461 dumps
You need to ensure that purchase order numbers are used only for a single order.
What should you do?
A. Create a new CLUSTERED constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
B. Create a new UNIQUE constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
C. Create a new PRIMARY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
D. Create a new FOREIGN KEY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You use a contained database named ContosoDb within a domain. You need to create a user who can log on to the ContosoDb database. You also need to ensure that you can port the database to different database servers within the domain without additional user account configurations.
Which type of user should you create?
A. SQL user without login
B. SQL user with a custom SID
C. SQL user with login
D. Domain user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
70-461 dumps
Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you create a Foreign Key constraint that references a different table in the database?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to write a query that displays the following details:
Total sales made by sales people, year, city, and country Sub totals only at the city level and country level A grand total of the sales amount
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY GROUPING SETS ((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart
(yyyy, SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You plan to write a query for a new business report that will contain several nested queries.
You need to ensure that a nested query can call a table-valued function for each row in the main query.
Which query operator should you use in the nested query?
A. CROSS APPLY
B. INNER JOIN
C. OUTER JOIN
D. PIVOT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Smallmoney
B. Numeric
C. Money
D. Varchar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory (
ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
The new column is expected to be queried heavily, and you need to be able to index the column. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemslnStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse PERSISTED
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse) PERSISTED
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. 70-461 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
<CUSTOMERS Name=”Customer A” Country=”Australia”>
<ORDERS OrderID=”1″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01″ Amount=”3400.00″ />
<ORDERS OrderID=”2″ OrderDate=”2002-01-01″ Amount=”4300.00″ />
</CUSTOMERS>
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are a database developer for an application hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
The database contains two tables that have the following definitions:
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Global customers place orders from several countries.
You need to view the country from which each customer has placed the most orders.
Which Transact-SQL query do you use?
A. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
B. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM (SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(o.OrderAmount) ASC) AS Rnk
FROM Customer c
INNER JOIN Orders o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
GROUP BY c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry) cs WHERE Rnk = 1
C. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
D. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS OrderAmount
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database. You run the following query:
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You observe performance issues when you run the query. You capture the following query execution plan:
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You need to ensure that the query performs returns the results as quickly as possible.
Which action should you perform?
A. Add a new index to the ID column of the Person table.
B. Add a new index to the EndDate column of the History table.
C. Create a materialized view that is based on joining data from the ActiveEmployee and History tables.
D. Create a computed column that concatenates the GivenName and SurName columns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
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Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: G

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New Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions. MB2-715 dumps
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?
A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator for a company that is preparing for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
Your users use both Windows and Mac laptops. Management wants users to be able to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Out.ook.
What is a requirement for the Office for Mac users?
A. They must use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
B. They must have the Opera Web Browser installed.
C. They must have Google Chrome installed.
D. They must have the latest Firefox installed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are a system administrator for an organization that relies solely on an ISV solution for Microsoft Dynamics 365. MB2-715 dumps
Your instances are scheduled to be updated.
What are two approaches for this update? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Test the update in your sandbox environments prior to updating production.
B. Contact your ISV provider, and follow their recommendation for this update.
C. Update production. With an ISV solution, there is no need to go through a test process.
D. Import the updated version of the ISV solution prior to the update of your instance.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Microsoft Dynamics 36b and Skype for Business are implemented at your company.
You recently became system administrator, and you notice that the Skype for Business presence is not displaying in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to resolve this issue?
A. Enable country/region code prefixing.
B. Select the provider for Click-to-Call.
C. Change user settings for the security roles.
D. Enable presence for the system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your organization has decided to take advantage of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook App.
What should you do to ensure the app is automatically added to the Outlook account of all eligible users?
A. Use Group Policy in Active Directory and automatically install the app for the eligible users.
B. In Microsoft Dynamics 365 Settings > Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, add the app to all eligible users.
C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365f go to App Source, search for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, and install it from App Source.
D. Assign all eligible users proper privileges to use the app in Microsoft Dynamics 365 and instruct them where to download and install the app.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG

QUESTION 3
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal bootup sequence? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: dmesg /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 5
What file contains kernel level logging information such as output from a network driver module when it is loaded? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /VAR/LOG/KERN.LOG,/VAR/LOG/MESSAGES,KERN.LOG,MESSAGES

QUESTION 6
What file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/CMDLINE,CMDLINE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What command is used to display a file in octal format? LX0-101 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/HEXDUMP,/USR/BIN/OD,HEXDUMP,OD

QUESTION 9
To change the priority of a running process, an administrator should use the command. (Specify command only with no options.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/RENICE,RENICE

QUESTION 10
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the name of the main configuration file for GRUB? (Please specify the file name with no path information).
Correct Answer: GRUB.CFG,GRUB.CONF,MENU.LST

QUESTION 12
An administrator wants the default permissions for their files to be -rw-r—–. How must the administrator set umask?
A. 037
B. 640
C. 038
D. 027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator is writing text in vi. Now the administrator wants to save their changes and exit. Which of the following sequence of inputs will accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will print a list of usernames (first column) and their corresponding user id (uid, third column) from /etc/passwd?
A. cut -d: -f1,3 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,3 /etc/passwd
C. tac 1-3 /etc/passwd
D. fmt -u /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
The /etc/ file lists currently mounted devices.
Correct Answer: MTAB

QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP

QUESTION 20
The priority of any process can range from -20 to . LX0-101 dumps (Provide only the numerical value).
Correct Answer: +19,19

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true when hard-linked files are present?
A. The output of stat will report “hard” instead of “regular file”
B. The hard-linked files may not be empty
C. Both files will share the same inode
D. Issuing a long directory listing with ls -l will indicate the link with “->”
E. The file permissions will be prefixed by an “h”, eg. hrwxr-x-r-x
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
/dev/sda3 will create a swap area on the device /dev/sda3.
Correct Answer: /SBIN/MKSWAP,MKSWAP

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
C. /bin/grep #$ foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts the floppy disk for all users.
B. It shows all mounted file systems.
C. It opens /etc/fstab to edit.
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will show the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf –
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf –
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An administrator suspects that a new Ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should the administrator check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drivers? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/INTERRUPTS,INTERRUPTS

QUESTION 30
Which of the following commands can be used to instruct the init process to switch runlevels? (Select TWO).
A. telinit
B. initctl
C. init
D. reinit
E. runlevel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 31
All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh EXCEPT:
A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
B. . /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 32
An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. LX0-101 dumps The administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following commands is run LAST during boot on a system with quotas enabled?
A. fsck
B. mount
C. quotacheck
D. quotaon
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
An administrator has read/write permissions on an ordinary file foo. The administrator has just run ln foo bar. Which of the following would occur if the administrator ran rm foo?
A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. The administrator would be asked whether bar should be removed.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile
D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. 210-060 dumps Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat?
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-20)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? 200-125 dumps
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? 200-125 dumps (choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

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642-999 dumps
QUESTION 1
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 5
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? 642-999 dumps (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
Which item is required for communication between Cisco Unified Computing System Manager and VMware vCenter? 642-999 dumps
A. VeriSign Digital Certificates
B. RSA Digital Certificates
C. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager Extension Key
D. VeriSign Plug-In
E. WMware vCenter Certificate Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How many certificates does Cisco Unified Computing System Manager have to export to communicate with VMware vCenter server if the VMware ESXi hosts are all running version 5.0 or higher?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In the Create Dynamic vNIC Connection Policy dialog box, there is a configurable field titled Protection. What is the significance of the three choices for Protection?
A. allows reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool
B. enables hardware-based failover
C. enables static binding of the VM port profile to dynamic vNICs
D. selects the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs
E. allows dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
How does a dynamic vNIC get allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in VMware vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
After staging a VEM file on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host in the /tmp directory, what is the correct command syntax to install the VEM? 642-999 dumps
A. esxcli software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
B. esxcli software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
C. esxupdate software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
D. esxupdate software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.vib -maintenance-mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which network driver is required on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host for a vNIC to enter Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. VMXNET3
B. Vlance
C. Flexible
D. E1000e
E. VMXNET5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which virtual hardware version is required for a VM to enter the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. Version 5
B. Version 6
C. Version 7
D. Version 8
E. Version 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true concerning the Global Chassis Discovery policy configuration on the Cisco Unified Computing System Manager when using Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules with Cisco UCS 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. The link grouping preference should be set to discrete mode when the number of northbound links are not a power of 2.
B. Set the action policy-count higher than the actual number of uplinks; otherwise, the Cisco Unified Computing System servers will not be discovered.
C. For Cisco Unified Computing System implementations that mix I/O modules with different numbers of links, it is best to manually reacknowledge the chassis in order to use all available links.
D. Automatic reacknowledgement due to chassis discovery is never disruptive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning the link configuration between Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules and Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects? 642-999 dumps
A. Port channels are always recommended when using source-dest-mac load balancing.
B. The addition of links to a port channel requires a reacknowledgement.
C. You cannot mix and match discrete links and port channeling for different chassis when using 22XX.
D. Port channels do not require a Global Chassis Discovery policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280 adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is true with respect to recovery from failure with automatic pinning that is configured on a cluster of Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. By default, server MAC addresses are pinned to uplink interfaces using PIN groups.
B. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the affected servers will use NIC teaming to re-establish connectivity on the second fabric interconnect.
C. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the fabric interconnect will send a gratuitous ARP to the northbound switch to announce the servers on the new port.
D. In the event that all uplink ports on the fabric interconnect lose connectivity, the 22XX I/O module shuts down all of the host ports until at least one uplink is restored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How does a Cisco Unified Computing System react when configured for disjoint Layer 2 domains?
A. Automatic pinning is disabled; VLAN membership must be statically pinned to the uplink ports.
B. VLANs must be divided between the fabric interconnects using PIN groups.
C. The VLAN traffic for a disjoint network can only travel along an uplink that is specifically assigned to this VLAN and is selectively excluded from all other uplinks.
D. When you configure disjoint Layer 2 networks, you must assign VLANs to uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: C

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70-744 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has 10 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. The servers have Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) enabled for server administration. RDP is configured to use default security settings. All administrators’ computers run Windows 7.
You need to ensure the RDP connections are as secure as possible.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the security layer for each server to the RDP Security Layer.
B. Configure the firewall on each server to block port 3389.
C. Acquire user certificates from the internal certification authority.
D. Configure each server to allow connections only to Remote Desktop client computers that use Network Level Authentication.
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has DirectAccess deployed.
You deploy a new server named Server1 that hosts a management application.
You need to ensure that Server1 can initiate connections to DirectAccess client computers.
Which settings should you modify from the DirectAccess Setup console?
A. Application Servers
B. DirectAccess Server
C. Infrastructure Servers
D. Remote Clients
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and fabrikam.com.
You have a standalone Network Policy Server (NPS) named NPS1.
You have a VPN server named VPN1. VPN1 is configured as a RADIUS client to NPS1. 70-744 dumps
You need to ensure that users from both forests can establish VPN connections by using their own domain accounts.
What should you do?
A. On NPS1, configure remediation server groups.
B. On NPS1, configure connection request policies.
C. On VPN1, modify the DNS suffix search order.
D. On VPN1, modify the IKEv2 Client connection controls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
Computer1 is configured to use DirectAccess.
You need to identify the URL of the network location server that Computer1 is configured to use.
What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run ipconfig.exe /displaydns.
B. From a command prompt, run netsh.exe namespace show policy.
C. From Control Panel, run the network adapter troubleshooter.
D. From the Network Connection Status window, view the Network Connection Details.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that have the Network Policy Server (NPS) role service installed.
On Server1, you configure a Remote RADIUS Server Group that contains Server2 and Server3. On Server2 and Server3, you configure Server1 as a RADIUS client.
You configure Server2 and Server3 to authenticate remote users.
You need to configure Server1 to forward RADIUS authentication requests to Server2 and Server3.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a connection request policy
B. a health policy
C. a network policy
D. a remediation server group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com. Contoso.com contains an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You enable Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) on a server named Server1.
A user named User1 attempts to establish an SSTP connection to Server1 and receives the following error message: “Error 0x80092013: The revocation function was unable to check revocation because the revocation server was offline.”
You verify that all certificates services are online.
You need to ensure that User1 can connect to Server1 by using SSTP.
What should you do first?
A. Configure User1 for certificate auto enrollment.
B. Configure a pre-shared key for IPSec on User1’s computer.
C. Add a certificate to Server1 that contains Server1.contoso.com as a Subject Alternative Name (SAN).
D. Publish the certificate revocation list distribution point (CDP) to a location that is accessible from the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You need to mount an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) snapshot from Server1.
What should you do?
A. Run Idp.exe and use the Bind option.
B. Run diskpart.exe and use the Attach option.
C. Run dsdbutil.exe and use the snapshot option.
D. Run imagex.exe and specify the /mount parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com.
Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed in contoso.com. An AD RMS trusted user domain (TUD) exists between contoso.com and adatum.com.
From the AD RMS logs, you discover that some clients that have IP addresses in the adatum.com forest are authenticating as users from contoso.com.
You need to prevent users from impersonating contoso.com users.
What should you do?
A. Configure trusted e-mail domains
B. Enable lockbox exclusion in AD RMS.
C. Create a forest trust between adatum.com and contoso.com.
D. Add a certificate from a third-party trusted certification authority (CA).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your company has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain. The domain member server has an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role installed. 70-744 dumps
You need to configure AD FS to ensure that AD FS tokens contain information from the Active Directory domain.
What should you do?
A. Add and configure a new account store.
B. Add and configure a new account partner.
C. Add and configure a new resource partner.
D. Add and configure a Claims-aware application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You deploy a new Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) federation server.
You request new certificates for the AD FS federation server.
You need to ensure that the AD FS federation server can use the new certificates.
To which certificate store should you import the certificates?
A. Computer
B. IIS Admin Service service account
C. Local Administrator
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service service account
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. The Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role is installed on Server1. Contoso.com is defined as an account store.
A partner company has a Web-based application that uses AD FS authentication. The partner company plans to provide users from contoso.com access to the Web application.
You need to configure AD FS on contoso.com to allow contoso.com users to be authenticated by the partner company.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a new application
B. a resource partner
C. an account partner
D. an organization claim
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed on your network.
You need to configure AD RMS to use Kerberos authentication.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Register a service principal name (SPN) for AD RMS.
B. Register a service connection point (SCP) for AD RMS.
C. Configure the identity setting of the _DRMSAppPool1 application pool.
D. Configure the useAppPoolCredentials attribute in the Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase.
Correct Answer: A,D

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