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Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG

QUESTION 3
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal bootup sequence? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: dmesg /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 5
What file contains kernel level logging information such as output from a network driver module when it is loaded? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /VAR/LOG/KERN.LOG,/VAR/LOG/MESSAGES,KERN.LOG,MESSAGES

QUESTION 6
What file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/CMDLINE,CMDLINE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What command is used to display a file in octal format? LX0-101 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/HEXDUMP,/USR/BIN/OD,HEXDUMP,OD

QUESTION 9
To change the priority of a running process, an administrator should use the command. (Specify command only with no options.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/RENICE,RENICE

QUESTION 10
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the name of the main configuration file for GRUB? (Please specify the file name with no path information).
Correct Answer: GRUB.CFG,GRUB.CONF,MENU.LST

QUESTION 12
An administrator wants the default permissions for their files to be -rw-r—–. How must the administrator set umask?
A. 037
B. 640
C. 038
D. 027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator is writing text in vi. Now the administrator wants to save their changes and exit. Which of the following sequence of inputs will accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will print a list of usernames (first column) and their corresponding user id (uid, third column) from /etc/passwd?
A. cut -d: -f1,3 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,3 /etc/passwd
C. tac 1-3 /etc/passwd
D. fmt -u /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
The /etc/ file lists currently mounted devices.
Correct Answer: MTAB

QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP

QUESTION 20
The priority of any process can range from -20 to . LX0-101 dumps (Provide only the numerical value).
Correct Answer: +19,19

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true when hard-linked files are present?
A. The output of stat will report “hard” instead of “regular file”
B. The hard-linked files may not be empty
C. Both files will share the same inode
D. Issuing a long directory listing with ls -l will indicate the link with “->”
E. The file permissions will be prefixed by an “h”, eg. hrwxr-x-r-x
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
/dev/sda3 will create a swap area on the device /dev/sda3.
Correct Answer: /SBIN/MKSWAP,MKSWAP

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
C. /bin/grep #$ foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts the floppy disk for all users.
B. It shows all mounted file systems.
C. It opens /etc/fstab to edit.
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will show the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf –
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf –
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An administrator suspects that a new Ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should the administrator check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drivers? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/INTERRUPTS,INTERRUPTS

QUESTION 30
Which of the following commands can be used to instruct the init process to switch runlevels? (Select TWO).
A. telinit
B. initctl
C. init
D. reinit
E. runlevel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 31
All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh EXCEPT:
A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
B. . /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 32
An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. LX0-101 dumps The administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following commands is run LAST during boot on a system with quotas enabled?
A. fsck
B. mount
C. quotacheck
D. quotaon
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
An administrator has read/write permissions on an ordinary file foo. The administrator has just run ln foo bar. Which of the following would occur if the administrator ran rm foo?
A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. The administrator would be asked whether bar should be removed.
Correct Answer: B

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Lead4pass New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q9-Q40)

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile
D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. 210-060 dumps Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat?
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-20)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? 200-125 dumps
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? 200-125 dumps (choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

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642-999 dumps
QUESTION 1
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 5
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? 642-999 dumps (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
Which item is required for communication between Cisco Unified Computing System Manager and VMware vCenter? 642-999 dumps
A. VeriSign Digital Certificates
B. RSA Digital Certificates
C. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager Extension Key
D. VeriSign Plug-In
E. WMware vCenter Certificate Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How many certificates does Cisco Unified Computing System Manager have to export to communicate with VMware vCenter server if the VMware ESXi hosts are all running version 5.0 or higher?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In the Create Dynamic vNIC Connection Policy dialog box, there is a configurable field titled Protection. What is the significance of the three choices for Protection?
A. allows reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool
B. enables hardware-based failover
C. enables static binding of the VM port profile to dynamic vNICs
D. selects the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs
E. allows dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
How does a dynamic vNIC get allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in VMware vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
After staging a VEM file on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host in the /tmp directory, what is the correct command syntax to install the VEM? 642-999 dumps
A. esxcli software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
B. esxcli software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
C. esxupdate software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
D. esxupdate software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.vib -maintenance-mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which network driver is required on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host for a vNIC to enter Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. VMXNET3
B. Vlance
C. Flexible
D. E1000e
E. VMXNET5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which virtual hardware version is required for a VM to enter the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. Version 5
B. Version 6
C. Version 7
D. Version 8
E. Version 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true concerning the Global Chassis Discovery policy configuration on the Cisco Unified Computing System Manager when using Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules with Cisco UCS 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. The link grouping preference should be set to discrete mode when the number of northbound links are not a power of 2.
B. Set the action policy-count higher than the actual number of uplinks; otherwise, the Cisco Unified Computing System servers will not be discovered.
C. For Cisco Unified Computing System implementations that mix I/O modules with different numbers of links, it is best to manually reacknowledge the chassis in order to use all available links.
D. Automatic reacknowledgement due to chassis discovery is never disruptive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning the link configuration between Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules and Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects? 642-999 dumps
A. Port channels are always recommended when using source-dest-mac load balancing.
B. The addition of links to a port channel requires a reacknowledgement.
C. You cannot mix and match discrete links and port channeling for different chassis when using 22XX.
D. Port channels do not require a Global Chassis Discovery policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280 adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is true with respect to recovery from failure with automatic pinning that is configured on a cluster of Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. By default, server MAC addresses are pinned to uplink interfaces using PIN groups.
B. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the affected servers will use NIC teaming to re-establish connectivity on the second fabric interconnect.
C. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the fabric interconnect will send a gratuitous ARP to the northbound switch to announce the servers on the new port.
D. In the event that all uplink ports on the fabric interconnect lose connectivity, the 22XX I/O module shuts down all of the host ports until at least one uplink is restored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How does a Cisco Unified Computing System react when configured for disjoint Layer 2 domains?
A. Automatic pinning is disabled; VLAN membership must be statically pinned to the uplink ports.
B. VLANs must be divided between the fabric interconnects using PIN groups.
C. The VLAN traffic for a disjoint network can only travel along an uplink that is specifically assigned to this VLAN and is selectively excluded from all other uplinks.
D. When you configure disjoint Layer 2 networks, you must assign VLANs to uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: C

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70-744 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has 10 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. The servers have Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) enabled for server administration. RDP is configured to use default security settings. All administrators’ computers run Windows 7.
You need to ensure the RDP connections are as secure as possible.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the security layer for each server to the RDP Security Layer.
B. Configure the firewall on each server to block port 3389.
C. Acquire user certificates from the internal certification authority.
D. Configure each server to allow connections only to Remote Desktop client computers that use Network Level Authentication.
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has DirectAccess deployed.
You deploy a new server named Server1 that hosts a management application.
You need to ensure that Server1 can initiate connections to DirectAccess client computers.
Which settings should you modify from the DirectAccess Setup console?
A. Application Servers
B. DirectAccess Server
C. Infrastructure Servers
D. Remote Clients
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and fabrikam.com.
You have a standalone Network Policy Server (NPS) named NPS1.
You have a VPN server named VPN1. VPN1 is configured as a RADIUS client to NPS1. 70-744 dumps
You need to ensure that users from both forests can establish VPN connections by using their own domain accounts.
What should you do?
A. On NPS1, configure remediation server groups.
B. On NPS1, configure connection request policies.
C. On VPN1, modify the DNS suffix search order.
D. On VPN1, modify the IKEv2 Client connection controls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
Computer1 is configured to use DirectAccess.
You need to identify the URL of the network location server that Computer1 is configured to use.
What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run ipconfig.exe /displaydns.
B. From a command prompt, run netsh.exe namespace show policy.
C. From Control Panel, run the network adapter troubleshooter.
D. From the Network Connection Status window, view the Network Connection Details.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that have the Network Policy Server (NPS) role service installed.
On Server1, you configure a Remote RADIUS Server Group that contains Server2 and Server3. On Server2 and Server3, you configure Server1 as a RADIUS client.
You configure Server2 and Server3 to authenticate remote users.
You need to configure Server1 to forward RADIUS authentication requests to Server2 and Server3.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a connection request policy
B. a health policy
C. a network policy
D. a remediation server group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com. Contoso.com contains an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You enable Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) on a server named Server1.
A user named User1 attempts to establish an SSTP connection to Server1 and receives the following error message: “Error 0x80092013: The revocation function was unable to check revocation because the revocation server was offline.”
You verify that all certificates services are online.
You need to ensure that User1 can connect to Server1 by using SSTP.
What should you do first?
A. Configure User1 for certificate auto enrollment.
B. Configure a pre-shared key for IPSec on User1’s computer.
C. Add a certificate to Server1 that contains Server1.contoso.com as a Subject Alternative Name (SAN).
D. Publish the certificate revocation list distribution point (CDP) to a location that is accessible from the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You need to mount an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) snapshot from Server1.
What should you do?
A. Run Idp.exe and use the Bind option.
B. Run diskpart.exe and use the Attach option.
C. Run dsdbutil.exe and use the snapshot option.
D. Run imagex.exe and specify the /mount parameter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and adatum.com.
Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed in contoso.com. An AD RMS trusted user domain (TUD) exists between contoso.com and adatum.com.
From the AD RMS logs, you discover that some clients that have IP addresses in the adatum.com forest are authenticating as users from contoso.com.
You need to prevent users from impersonating contoso.com users.
What should you do?
A. Configure trusted e-mail domains
B. Enable lockbox exclusion in AD RMS.
C. Create a forest trust between adatum.com and contoso.com.
D. Add a certificate from a third-party trusted certification authority (CA).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your company has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain. The domain member server has an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role installed. 70-744 dumps
You need to configure AD FS to ensure that AD FS tokens contain information from the Active Directory domain.
What should you do?
A. Add and configure a new account store.
B. Add and configure a new account partner.
C. Add and configure a new resource partner.
D. Add and configure a Claims-aware application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You deploy a new Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) federation server.
You request new certificates for the AD FS federation server.
You need to ensure that the AD FS federation server can use the new certificates.
To which certificate store should you import the certificates?
A. Computer
B. IIS Admin Service service account
C. Local Administrator
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service service account
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. The Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role is installed on Server1. Contoso.com is defined as an account store.
A partner company has a Web-based application that uses AD FS authentication. The partner company plans to provide users from contoso.com access to the Web application.
You need to configure AD FS on contoso.com to allow contoso.com users to be authenticated by the partner company.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a new application
B. a resource partner
C. an account partner
D. an organization claim
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed on your network.
You need to configure AD RMS to use Kerberos authentication.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Register a service principal name (SPN) for AD RMS.
B. Register a service connection point (SCP) for AD RMS.
C. Configure the identity setting of the _DRMSAppPool1 application pool.
D. Configure the useAppPoolCredentials attribute in the Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase.
Correct Answer: A,D

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Cisco Acquires Cmpute.io to Upgrade Cloud Services

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Cisco has announced plans to acquire Cmpute.io, a provider of cloud solutions in India, as part of a push to promote its cloud offerings. The company’s tech analyses cloud-deployed workloads and consumption patterns.

When established in Delaware, USA, Cmpute.io has offices in Bangalore, India. Also known as 47Line Technologies, India’s advanced technology partner for Amazon Web Services (AWS) provides a software solution to analyze the workload and consumption patterns of cloud deployments.

The company’s technology also identifies cost-optimized tactical workloads in the cloud designed to help end users scale their cloud workload instances, minimize over-provisioning, and avoid paying for resources that do not provide business value.
Cisco
According to Rob Salvagno, head of Cisco’s mergers and venture capital team, Cmpute.io’s team and technology will add new capabilities to Cisco’s CloudCenter and accelerate cost optimization for its customers.

“More and more businesses are moving workloads to private and public clouds — and often to multiple public cloud providers — in order to gain more flexibility and agility,” Salvagno said. “However, managing this multicloud environment can create complexity for IT and make it challenging to manage costs and uncontrolled consumption.”

“To help our customers optimize the consumption of cloud resources in this more complex reality and control cloud spending, Cisco is announcing our intent to acquire Cmpute.io. With a multicloud strategy, customers need to budget, buy, and consume differently. Cmpute.io’s technology added to existing Cisco solutions will help our customers optimize their cloud consumption to ensure optimal business value,” he said.
Cisco
NEW DELHI: Technology giant Cisco will buy Cmpute.io, a privately held company in Bangalore, but did not reveal the data because it appears to be beefing up its cloud computing offerings.

“To help our customers optimise the consumption of cloud resources in this more complex reality and control cloud spending, Cisco is announcing our intent to acquire Cmpute.io, also known as 47Line Technologies,” Cisco said in a blogpost.

It added that Cmpute.io is a private company run in Bangalore and incorporated in Delaware.

“We expect the acquisition of Cmpute.io to close in the second quarter of Cisco’s fiscal year 2018,” it said.

Cmpute.io’s software solution analyzes cloud-based workloads and consumption patterns and identifies cost-optimization strategies.
Cisco
The blog said the solution helps customers properly scale cloud workload instances and avoid paying for resources that do not provide commercial value.

In October 2015, Cisco had made its first acquisition in India by acquiring Bengaluru-based IT security company Pawaa for an undisclosed amount. The US-based company has been aggressively investing in the Indian market.

Cmpute.io acquisition is expected to be completed in the second quarter of Cisco’s fiscal year 2018. It has also invested in over 25 startups in India, including Mobikwik and MobStac. In 2016, it had committed investments of USD 100 million to fund startups and train 2.5 lakh students in India by 2020.

Reference: https://www.arnnet.com.au/article/631017/cisco-set-acquire-cmpute-io-cloud-offering-boost/

Related: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/tech/software/cisco-to-acquire-cmpute-io-to-bolster-cloud-offerings/articleshow/61967089.cms

Category: Cisco news | Tags: ,

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-N
Exam Name: Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
Exam Code: 1Y0-351
Total Questions: 289 Q&As
1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer want to specify a TCP Profile for a specific service group?
A. To enable use of features like SSL over TCP for that specific service group.
B. To adjust the TCP settings for traffic to and from that specific service group.
C. To use a specific SNIP for traffic to the back-end servers in that service group.
D. To enable features like use source IP, TCP keep alive and TCP buffering for a specific service group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: For security reasons, the NSIP needs to be configured to only be accessible on interface 0/1, which is VLAN 300. 1Y0-351 dumps
The NSIP address is 10.110.4.254 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
How would the network engineer achieve this configuration?
A. set ns config -nsvlan 300 -ifnum 0/1
B. set ns ip 10.110.4.254 -gui ENABLED -vrID 300
C. add vlan 300
set ns ip 10.110.4.254 -mgmtAccess ENABLED
D. set ns config -IPAddress 10.110.4.254 -netmask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 5
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance.
Which directory should an engineer check to determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. 1Y0-351 dumps The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet clients should flow through the external firewall.
Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer wants to optimize a published load balanced SSL virtual server for WAN connection with long delay, high bandwidth with minimal packet drops.
What would the network engineer use to do this type of optimization for the SSL virtual server?
A. SSL policy
B. TCP profile
C. Compression policy
D. Priority queuing policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Salesforce
Certifications: The Salesforce.com Certified Administrator
Exam Name: Administration Essentials for New Admins
Exam Code: ADM-201
Total Questions: 1013 Q&As
ADM-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? ADM-201 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation? ADM-201 dumps
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

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