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[100% Pass Guarantee] Microsoft MCSE 70-744 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Update

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70-744 dumps
Your company has 10 servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2. The servers have Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) enabled for server administration. RDP is configured to use default security settings. All administrators’ computers run Windows 7.
You need to ensure the RDP connections are as secure as possible.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set the security layer for each server to the RDP Security Layer.
B. Configure the firewall on each server to block port 3389.
C. Acquire user certificates from the internal certification authority.
D. Configure each server to allow connections only to Remote Desktop client computers that use Network Level Authentication.
Correct Answer: C,D

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The network has DirectAccess deployed.
You deploy a new server named Server1 that hosts a management application.
You need to ensure that Server1 can initiate connections to DirectAccess client computers.
Which settings should you modify from the DirectAccess Setup console?
A. Application Servers
B. DirectAccess Server
C. Infrastructure Servers
D. Remote Clients
Correct Answer: C

Your network contains two Active Directory forests named and
You have a standalone Network Policy Server (NPS) named NPS1.
You have a VPN server named VPN1. VPN1 is configured as a RADIUS client to NPS1. 70-744 dumps
You need to ensure that users from both forests can establish VPN connections by using their own domain accounts.
What should you do?
A. On NPS1, configure remediation server groups.
B. On NPS1, configure connection request policies.
C. On VPN1, modify the DNS suffix search order.
D. On VPN1, modify the IKEv2 Client connection controls.
Correct Answer: B

Your network contains a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
Computer1 is configured to use DirectAccess.
You need to identify the URL of the network location server that Computer1 is configured to use.
What should you do?
A. From a command prompt, run ipconfig.exe /displaydns.
B. From a command prompt, run netsh.exe namespace show policy.
C. From Control Panel, run the network adapter troubleshooter.
D. From the Network Connection Status window, view the Network Connection Details.
Correct Answer: B

Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that have the Network Policy Server (NPS) role service installed.
On Server1, you configure a Remote RADIUS Server Group that contains Server2 and Server3. On Server2 and Server3, you configure Server1 as a RADIUS client.
You configure Server2 and Server3 to authenticate remote users.
You need to configure Server1 to forward RADIUS authentication requests to Server2 and Server3.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a connection request policy
B. a health policy
C. a network policy
D. a remediation server group
Correct Answer: A

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contains an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
You enable Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP) on a server named Server1.
A user named User1 attempts to establish an SSTP connection to Server1 and receives the following error message: “Error 0x80092013: The revocation function was unable to check revocation because the revocation server was offline.”
You verify that all certificates services are online.
You need to ensure that User1 can connect to Server1 by using SSTP.
What should you do first?
A. Configure User1 for certificate auto enrollment.
B. Configure a pre-shared key for IPSec on User1’s computer.
C. Add a certificate to Server1 that contains as a Subject Alternative Name (SAN).
D. Publish the certificate revocation list distribution point (CDP) to a location that is accessible from the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You need to mount an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) snapshot from Server1.
What should you do?
A. Run Idp.exe and use the Bind option.
B. Run diskpart.exe and use the Attach option.
C. Run dsdbutil.exe and use the snapshot option.
D. Run imagex.exe and specify the /mount parameter.
Correct Answer: C

Your network contains two Active Directory forests named and
Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed in An AD RMS trusted user domain (TUD) exists between and
From the AD RMS logs, you discover that some clients that have IP addresses in the forest are authenticating as users from
You need to prevent users from impersonating users.
What should you do?
A. Configure trusted e-mail domains
B. Enable lockbox exclusion in AD RMS.
C. Create a forest trust between and
D. Add a certificate from a third-party trusted certification authority (CA).
Correct Answer: A

Your company has an Active Directory forest that contains a single domain. The domain member server has an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role installed. 70-744 dumps
You need to configure AD FS to ensure that AD FS tokens contain information from the Active Directory domain.
What should you do?
A. Add and configure a new account store.
B. Add and configure a new account partner.
C. Add and configure a new resource partner.
D. Add and configure a Claims-aware application.
Correct Answer: A

You deploy a new Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) federation server.
You request new certificates for the AD FS federation server.
You need to ensure that the AD FS federation server can use the new certificates.
To which certificate store should you import the certificates?
A. Computer
B. IIS Admin Service service account
C. Local Administrator
D. World Wide Web Publishing Service service account
Correct Answer: A

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named The domain contains a server named Server1. The Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) role is installed on Server1. is defined as an account store.
A partner company has a Web-based application that uses AD FS authentication. The partner company plans to provide users from access to the Web application.
You need to configure AD FS on to allow users to be authenticated by the partner company.
What should you create on Server1?
A. a new application
B. a resource partner
C. an account partner
D. an organization claim
Correct Answer: D

Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) is deployed on your network.
You need to configure AD RMS to use Kerberos authentication.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Register a service principal name (SPN) for AD RMS.
B. Register a service connection point (SCP) for AD RMS.
C. Configure the identity setting of the _DRMSAppPool1 application pool.
D. Configure the useAppPoolCredentials attribute in the Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase.
Correct Answer: A,D

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Cisco Acquires to Upgrade Cloud Services

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Cisco has announced plans to acquire, a provider of cloud solutions in India, as part of a push to promote its cloud offerings. The company’s tech analyses cloud-deployed workloads and consumption patterns.

When established in Delaware, USA, has offices in Bangalore, India. Also known as 47Line Technologies, India’s advanced technology partner for Amazon Web Services (AWS) provides a software solution to analyze the workload and consumption patterns of cloud deployments.

The company’s technology also identifies cost-optimized tactical workloads in the cloud designed to help end users scale their cloud workload instances, minimize over-provisioning, and avoid paying for resources that do not provide business value.
According to Rob Salvagno, head of Cisco’s mergers and venture capital team,’s team and technology will add new capabilities to Cisco’s CloudCenter and accelerate cost optimization for its customers.

“More and more businesses are moving workloads to private and public clouds — and often to multiple public cloud providers — in order to gain more flexibility and agility,” Salvagno said. “However, managing this multicloud environment can create complexity for IT and make it challenging to manage costs and uncontrolled consumption.”

“To help our customers optimize the consumption of cloud resources in this more complex reality and control cloud spending, Cisco is announcing our intent to acquire With a multicloud strategy, customers need to budget, buy, and consume differently.’s technology added to existing Cisco solutions will help our customers optimize their cloud consumption to ensure optimal business value,” he said.
NEW DELHI: Technology giant Cisco will buy, a privately held company in Bangalore, but did not reveal the data because it appears to be beefing up its cloud computing offerings.

“To help our customers optimise the consumption of cloud resources in this more complex reality and control cloud spending, Cisco is announcing our intent to acquire, also known as 47Line Technologies,” Cisco said in a blogpost.

It added that is a private company run in Bangalore and incorporated in Delaware.

“We expect the acquisition of to close in the second quarter of Cisco’s fiscal year 2018,” it said.’s software solution analyzes cloud-based workloads and consumption patterns and identifies cost-optimization strategies.
The blog said the solution helps customers properly scale cloud workload instances and avoid paying for resources that do not provide commercial value.

In October 2015, Cisco had made its first acquisition in India by acquiring Bengaluru-based IT security company Pawaa for an undisclosed amount. The US-based company has been aggressively investing in the Indian market. acquisition is expected to be completed in the second quarter of Cisco’s fiscal year 2018. It has also invested in over 25 startups in India, including Mobikwik and MobStac. In 2016, it had committed investments of USD 100 million to fund startups and train 2.5 lakh students in India by 2020.



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[100% Pass Guarantee] Shared The Best Citrix CCP-N 1Y0-351 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Free Demo

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-N
Exam Name: Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
Exam Code: 1Y0-351
Total Questions: 289 Q&As
1Y0-351 dumps
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

Why would an engineer want to specify a TCP Profile for a specific service group?
A. To enable use of features like SSL over TCP for that specific service group.
B. To adjust the TCP settings for traffic to and from that specific service group.
C. To use a specific SNIP for traffic to the back-end servers in that service group.
D. To enable features like use source IP, TCP keep alive and TCP buffering for a specific service group.
Correct Answer: B

Scenario: For security reasons, the NSIP needs to be configured to only be accessible on interface 0/1, which is VLAN 300. 1Y0-351 dumps
The NSIP address is and the subnet mask is
How would the network engineer achieve this configuration?
A. set ns config -nsvlan 300 -ifnum 0/1
B. set ns ip -gui ENABLED -vrID 300
C. add vlan 300
set ns ip -mgmtAccess ENABLED
D. set ns config -IPAddress -netmask
Correct Answer: A
1Y0-351 dumps
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance.
Which directory should an engineer check to determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A

Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is The external SNIP is The MIP for internal access is Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the network which is available through the router. 1Y0-351 dumps The external firewall has the address. Traffic bound for Internet clients should flow through the external firewall.
Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route
B. add route
C. add route
D. add route
Correct Answer: A

A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

A network engineer wants to optimize a published load balanced SSL virtual server for WAN connection with long delay, high bandwidth with minimal packet drops.
What would the network engineer use to do this type of optimization for the SSL virtual server?
A. SSL policy
B. TCP profile
C. Compression policy
D. Priority queuing policy
Correct Answer: B

Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Salesforce
Certifications: The Certified Administrator
Exam Name: Administration Essentials for New Admins
Exam Code: ADM-201
Total Questions: 1013 Q&As
ADM-201 dumps
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B

What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? ADM-201 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation? ADM-201 dumps
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Java and Middleware
Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Total Questions: 216 Q&As
1Z0-803 dumps
A method doSomething () that has no exception handling code is modified to trail a method that throws a checked exception. Which two modifications, made independently, will allow the program to compile?
A. Catch the exception in the method doSomething().
B. Declare the exception to be thrown in the doSomething() method signature.
C. Cast the exception to a RunTimeException in the doSomething() method.
D. Catch the exception in the method that calls doSomething().
Correct Answer: AB

1Z0-803 dumps
Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
Correct Answer: B

Given a java source file:
1Z0-803 dumps
What changes will make this code compile? 1Z0-803 dumps (Select Two)
A. Adding the public modifier to the declaration of class x
B. Adding the protected modifier to the x() constructor
C. Changing the private modifier on the declaration of the one() method to protected
D. Removing the Y () constructor
E. Removing the private modifier from the two () method
Correct Answer: CE

Given the code fragment:
String h1 = “Bob”;
String h2 = new String (“Bob”);
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 = = h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Correct Answer: B

Which two are valid declarations of a two-dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array2D;
B. int [2] [2] array2D;
C. int array2D [];
D. int [] array2D [];
E. int [] [] array2D [];
Correct Answer: AD

Which code fragment is illegal?
1Z0-803 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

Which two may precede the word `class’ in a class declaration?
A. local
B. public
C. static
D. volatile
E. synchronized
Correct Answer: BC

Which three are bad practices? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception when iterating through an array to determine when all elements have been visited
B. Checking for Error and. If necessary, restarting the program to ensure that users are unaware problems
C. Checking for File Not Found Exception to inform a user that a filename entered is not valid
D. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception and ensuring that the program can recover if one occur
E. Checking for an IOException and ensuring that the program can recover if one occurs
Correct Answer: ABD

1Z0-803 dumps
What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

1Z0-803 dumps
What three modifications, made independently, made to class greet, enable the code to compile and run?
A. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.keystroke stroke = new KeyStroke ( );
B. line 6 replaced with handy.*.KeyStroke = new KeyStroke ( );
C. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.KeyStroke Stroke = new handy.dandy.KeyStroke();
D. import handy.*; added before line 1
E. import handy.dandy.*; added after line 1
F. import handy.dandy,KeyStroke; added after line 1
G. import handy.dandy.KeyStroke.typeException(); added before line 1
Correct Answer: CEF

Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being
Correct Answer: ACE

A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate false value for its declared type.
F. An exception occurs when the method attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Implementing NetScaler 10 for Networking and Traffic Optimization
Exam Code: 1Y0-A28
Total Questions: 123 Q&As
1Y0-A28 dumps
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?
A. VM Hosted applications
B. Streamed server OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk
Correct Answer: B

Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?
A. Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B. Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C. Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D. Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
Correct Answer: A

The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Correct Answer: A

Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Correct Answer: C

The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. 1Y0-A28 dumps Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A

Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Correct Answer: C

Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Correct Answer: C

Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Correct Answer: BD

Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections. What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable ‘Direct connection to print servers’
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Correct Answer: D

Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure ‘Username and Password’ in StoreFront.
Correct Answer: BC

An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the new virtual desktop environment. 1Y0-A28 dumps
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User’s Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Correct Answer: AE

Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CASP
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Exam Code: CAS-002
Total Questions: 532 Q&As
CAS-002 dumps
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks.
Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. CAS-002 dumps
Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: C, D

A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed.
The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details.
Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. CAS-002 dumps During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002 dumps
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working.
Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
Correct Answer: D

Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to do the required level of encryption.
Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A

The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image.
Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: A, C

The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it.
Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. CAS-002 dumps To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization.
Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: C, E, F

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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