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210-451 dumps

Hot Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud? 210-451 dumps
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? 210-451 dumps
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock? 210-451 dumps
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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Lead4pass New Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q9-Q40)

QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile
D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. 210-060 dumps Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat?
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

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200-125 dumps

Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (11-20)

QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? 200-125 dumps
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? 200-125 dumps (choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 5
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? 642-999 dumps (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
Which item is required for communication between Cisco Unified Computing System Manager and VMware vCenter? 642-999 dumps
A. VeriSign Digital Certificates
B. RSA Digital Certificates
C. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager Extension Key
D. VeriSign Plug-In
E. WMware vCenter Certificate Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How many certificates does Cisco Unified Computing System Manager have to export to communicate with VMware vCenter server if the VMware ESXi hosts are all running version 5.0 or higher?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In the Create Dynamic vNIC Connection Policy dialog box, there is a configurable field titled Protection. What is the significance of the three choices for Protection?
A. allows reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool
B. enables hardware-based failover
C. enables static binding of the VM port profile to dynamic vNICs
D. selects the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs
E. allows dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
How does a dynamic vNIC get allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in VMware vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
After staging a VEM file on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host in the /tmp directory, what is the correct command syntax to install the VEM? 642-999 dumps
A. esxcli software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
B. esxcli software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
C. esxupdate software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
D. esxupdate software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.vib -maintenance-mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which network driver is required on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host for a vNIC to enter Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. VMXNET3
B. Vlance
C. Flexible
D. E1000e
E. VMXNET5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which virtual hardware version is required for a VM to enter the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. Version 5
B. Version 6
C. Version 7
D. Version 8
E. Version 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true concerning the Global Chassis Discovery policy configuration on the Cisco Unified Computing System Manager when using Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules with Cisco UCS 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. The link grouping preference should be set to discrete mode when the number of northbound links are not a power of 2.
B. Set the action policy-count higher than the actual number of uplinks; otherwise, the Cisco Unified Computing System servers will not be discovered.
C. For Cisco Unified Computing System implementations that mix I/O modules with different numbers of links, it is best to manually reacknowledge the chassis in order to use all available links.
D. Automatic reacknowledgement due to chassis discovery is never disruptive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning the link configuration between Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules and Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects? 642-999 dumps
A. Port channels are always recommended when using source-dest-mac load balancing.
B. The addition of links to a port channel requires a reacknowledgement.
C. You cannot mix and match discrete links and port channeling for different chassis when using 22XX.
D. Port channels do not require a Global Chassis Discovery policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280 adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is true with respect to recovery from failure with automatic pinning that is configured on a cluster of Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. By default, server MAC addresses are pinned to uplink interfaces using PIN groups.
B. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the affected servers will use NIC teaming to re-establish connectivity on the second fabric interconnect.
C. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the fabric interconnect will send a gratuitous ARP to the northbound switch to announce the servers on the new port.
D. In the event that all uplink ports on the fabric interconnect lose connectivity, the 22XX I/O module shuts down all of the host ports until at least one uplink is restored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How does a Cisco Unified Computing System react when configured for disjoint Layer 2 domains?
A. Automatic pinning is disabled; VLAN membership must be statically pinned to the uplink ports.
B. VLANs must be divided between the fabric interconnects using PIN groups.
C. The VLAN traffic for a disjoint network can only travel along an uplink that is specifically assigned to this VLAN and is selectively excluded from all other uplinks.
D. When you configure disjoint Layer 2 networks, you must assign VLANs to uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 4          100-105 dumps
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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Question No : 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 2
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Answer: D,F

Question No : 4
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Answer: B,D

Question No : 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Answer: D

Question No : 7
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Answer: B,D

Question No : 8
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 dumps
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following? (choose three)
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B

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Question No : 1
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.

Question No : 2
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer : D,E

Explanation:
Port States There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
200-155
Question No : 3            200-155
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer : B

Explanation:
Cisco ACI is a comprehensive SDN architecture. This policy-based automation solution supports a business-relevant application policy language, greater scalability through a distributed enforcement system, and greater network visibility. These benefits are achieved through the integration of physical and virtual environments under one policy model for networks, servers, storage, services, and security.

Question No : 4
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer : B

Question No : 5
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 1024
Answer : B

Question No : 6
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Answer : D

Explanation:
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips. When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address. Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use the 200-155 Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive a response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address Ipconfig has already done so in order to generate the report. It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP address of the network host to which you want to connect.

Question No : 7
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A.802.1d
B.802.11
C.802.1w
D.802.1x
Answer : D

Explanation:
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term ‘supplicant’ is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols. The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicants identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport’s arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.

Question No : 8
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer : B

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.

Question No : 9
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Answer : A

Question No : 10
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
Collision Domains A collision domain is an area of a single LAN where end stations contend for access to the network because all end stations are connected to a shared physical medium. If two connected devices transmit onto the media at the same time, a collision occurs. When a collision occurs, a JAM signal is sent on the network, indicating that a collision has occurred and that devices should ignore any fragmented data associated with the collision. Both sending devices back off sending their data for a random amount and then try again if the medium is free for transmission. Therefore, collisions effectively delay transmission of data, lowering the effective throughput available to a device. The more devices that are attached to a collision domain, the greater the 200-155 chances of collisions; this results in lower bandwidth and performance for each device attached to the collision domain. Bridges and switches terminate the physical signal path of a collision domain, allowing you to segment separate collision domains, breaking them up into multiple smaller pieces to provide more bandwidth per user within the new collision domains formed.

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QUESTION 1
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
The numbers on the floor plan represent the horizontal average lux readings for nine different room areas. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the lighting conditions?
A. Only three areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only three areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. The areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065
A technician is reviewing the search history details on a Cisco 210-065 TelePresence VCS for a recent call that failed. What was the cause for the call setup failure?
A. A local call policy rule denied the call.
B. The source alias matched an entry in the registration deny list.
C. The originating caller was not authenticated.
D. The source alias origin is unknown.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

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