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[100% Pass Guarantee] 2017 Latest Cisco 810-403 Dumps PDF Practice Files And Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-20) Youtube Free Try

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QUESTION 1
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 4          100-105 dumps
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Question No : 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 2
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Answer: D,F

Question No : 4
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Answer: B,D

Question No : 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Answer: D

Question No : 7
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Answer: B,D

Question No : 8
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 dumps
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following? (choose three)
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Question No : 1
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.

Question No : 2
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer : D,E

Explanation:
Port States There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
200-155
Question No : 3            200-155
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer : B

Explanation:
Cisco ACI is a comprehensive SDN architecture. This policy-based automation solution supports a business-relevant application policy language, greater scalability through a distributed enforcement system, and greater network visibility. These benefits are achieved through the integration of physical and virtual environments under one policy model for networks, servers, storage, services, and security.

Question No : 4
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer : B

Question No : 5
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 1024
Answer : B

Question No : 6
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Answer : D

Explanation:
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips. When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address. Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use the 200-155 Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive a response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address Ipconfig has already done so in order to generate the report. It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP address of the network host to which you want to connect.

Question No : 7
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A.802.1d
B.802.11
C.802.1w
D.802.1x
Answer : D

Explanation:
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term ‘supplicant’ is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols. The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicants identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport’s arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.

Question No : 8
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer : B

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.

Question No : 9
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Answer : A

Question No : 10
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
Collision Domains A collision domain is an area of a single LAN where end stations contend for access to the network because all end stations are connected to a shared physical medium. If two connected devices transmit onto the media at the same time, a collision occurs. When a collision occurs, a JAM signal is sent on the network, indicating that a collision has occurred and that devices should ignore any fragmented data associated with the collision. Both sending devices back off sending their data for a random amount and then try again if the medium is free for transmission. Therefore, collisions effectively delay transmission of data, lowering the effective throughput available to a device. The more devices that are attached to a collision domain, the greater the 200-155 chances of collisions; this results in lower bandwidth and performance for each device attached to the collision domain. Bridges and switches terminate the physical signal path of a collision domain, allowing you to segment separate collision domains, breaking them up into multiple smaller pieces to provide more bandwidth per user within the new collision domains formed.

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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QUESTION 1
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
The numbers on the floor plan represent the horizontal average lux readings for nine different room areas. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the lighting conditions?
A. Only three areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only three areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. The areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065
A technician is reviewing the search history details on a Cisco 210-065 TelePresence VCS for a recent call that failed. What was the cause for the call setup failure?
A. A local call policy rule denied the call.
B. The source alias matched an entry in the registration deny list.
C. The originating caller was not authenticated.
D. The source alias origin is unknown.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can not mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets.
passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the 300-115 dumps port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis.
RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your network.
The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches.
The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the 300-115 dumps RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is always a physical port.

QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

QUESTION 4
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco 300-115 dumps IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 5
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch.
You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.
When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the information appears in the 300-115 dumps running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down, and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.

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Question No : 1
Which three commands are part of the requirements on Cisco Catalyst 3850 series Switch with Cisco IOX XE to create a RADIUS authentication server group? (Choose three.)
A. authentication dot1x default local
B. aaa session-idcommon
C. dot1x system-auth-control
D. aaa new-model
E. local-auth wcm_eap_prof
F. security dot1x
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 2
Which three configuration steps are necessary on the WLC when implementing central web authentication in conjunction with Cisco ISE. (Choose three.)
A. Set P2P Blocking Action to Drop.
B. Enable Security Layer 3 Web Policy.
C. Set NAC state to SNMP NAC.
D. Enable Allow AAA override.
E. Enable Security Layer 2 MAC Filtering.
F. Set NAC state to RADIUS NAC.
Answer: D,E,F

Question No : 3
An engineer must change the wireless authentication from WPA2-Personal to WPA2-Enterprise. Which three requirements are necessary? (Choose three.)
A. EAP
B. 802.1x
C. RADIUS
D. per-shared key
E. 802.11u
F. fast secure roaming
G. 802.11i
Answer: A,C,G
300-360 dumps
Question No : 4
A customer has deployed PEAP authentication with a Novell eDirectory LDAP Server. 300-360 dumps
Which authentication method must be configured on the client to support this deployment?
A. PEAP(EAP-MSCHAPv2)
B. PEAP(EAP-TTLS)
C. PEAP(EAP-GTC)
D. PEAP(EAP-WPA)
Answer: C

Question No : 5
An engineer is considering an MDM integration with Cisco ISE to assist with security for lost devices. Which two functions of MDM increase security for lost devices that access data from the network? (Choose two.)
A. PIN enforcement
B. Jailbreak/root detection
C. data wipe
D. data encryption
E. data loss prevention
Answer: A,C

Question No : 6
An engineer is configuring a new mobility anchor for a WLAN on the CLI with the config wlan mobility anchor add 3 10.10.10.10 command, but the command is failing. Which two conditions must be met to be able to enter this command? (Choose two.)
A. The anchor controller IP address must be within the management interface subnet.
B. The anchor controller must be in the same mobility group.
C. The WLAN must be enabled.
D. The mobility group keepalive must be configured.
E. The indicated WLAN ID must be present on the controller.
Answer: A,B

Question No : 7
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Answer: A

Question No : 8
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point?  300-360 dumps
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK
C. KCK, KEK, TK
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which two events are possible outcomes of a successful RF jamming attack? (Choose
two.)
A. unauthentication association
B. deauthentication multicast
C. deauthentication broadcast
D. disruption of WLAN services
E. physical damage to AP hardware
Answer: D,E

Question No : 10
A Cisco WLC has been added to the network and Cisco ISE as a network device, but authentication is failing. Which configuration within the network device configuration should be verified?
A. shared secret
B. device ID
C. SNMP RO community
D. device interface credentials
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 400-251 PDF Exam Questions And Answers

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements about the Unicast RPF in strict mode and loose mode are true? (Choose three.)
A. Loose mode requires the source address to be present in the routing table.
B. Inadvertent packet loss can occur when loose mode is used with asymmetrical routing.
C. Interfaces in strict mode drop traffic with return that point to the Null 0 Interface.
D. Strict mode requires a default route to be associated with the uplink network interface.
E. Strict mode is recommended on interfaces that will receive packets only from the same subnet to which is assigned.
F. Both loose and strict modes are configured globally on the router.
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (Choose two.)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic.
Answer: DE
400-251
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the SHA-1 algorithm are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it always produces a unique hash for the same message.
B. The SHA-1 algorithm takes input message of any length and produces 160-bit hash output.
C. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it is possible to find a message from its hash.
D. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data confidentiality.
E. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data authenticity.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which two statement about router Advertisement message are true? (Choose two.) 400-251 pdf
A. Local link prefixes are shared automatically.
B. Each prefix included in the advertisement carries lifetime information f Or that prefix.
C. Massage are sent to the miscast address FF02::1.
D. It support a configurable number of retransmission attempts for neighbor solicitation massage.
E. Flag setting are shared in the massage and retransmitted on the link.
F. Router solicitation massage are sent in response to router advertisement massage.
Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
Event Store is a component of which IPS application?
A. SensorApp
B. InterfaceApp
C. MainApp
D. NotificationApp
E. AuthenticationApp
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are two action you can take to protect against DDOS attacks on cisco router and switches? (Choose two.)
A. Rate limit SYN packets
B. Filter the RFC-1918 address space
C. configuration IP snooping
D. implement MAC address filtering
E. Configuration PIM-SM
Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about SOX are true? (Choose two.)
A. SOX is an IEFT compliance procedure for computer systems security.
B. SOX is a US law.
C. SOX is an IEEE compliance procedure for IT management to produce audit reports.
D. SOX is a private organization that provides best practices for financial institution computer systems.
E. Section 404 of SOX is related to IT compliance.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which two of the following ICMP types and code should be allowed in a firewall to enable traceroute? (Choose two.)
A. Destination Unreachable-protocol Unreachable
B. Destination Unreachable-port Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded-Time to Live exceeded in Transit
D. Redirect-Redirect Datagram for the Host
E. Time Exceeded-Fragment Reassembly Time Exceeded
F. Redirect-Redirect Datagram for the Type of service and Host
Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about the MD5 Hash are true? (Choose two.)
A. Length of the hash value varies with the length of the message that is being hashed.
B. Every unique message has a unique hash value.
C. Its mathematically possible to find a pair of message that yield the same hash value.
D. MD5 always yields a different value for the same message if repeatedly hashed.
E. The hash value cannot be used to discover the message.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
A server with Ip address 209.165.202.150 is protected behind the inside of a cisco ASA or PIX security appliance and the internet on the outside interface. 400-251 pdf  User on the internet need to access the server at any time but the firewall administrator does not want to apply NAT to the address of the server because it is currently a public address, which three of the following command can be used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. static (inside,outside) 209.165.202.150 209.165.202.150 netmask 255.255.255.2″
B. nat (inside) 1 209.165.202.150 255.255.255.255
C. no nat-control
D. nat (inside) 0 209.16S.202.150 255.255.255.255
E. static (outside.insid) 209.165.202.150 209.165.202.150 netmask 255.255.255.255
F. access-tist no-nat permit ip host 209.165.202.150 any nat (inside) 0 access-list no-nat
Answer: ADF

QUESTION 12
Which three statement about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can run as more than one instance.
B. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.
C. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.
D. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.
E. It can generate syslog massages that are visible only to individual VPNs.
F. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.
Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about implementing GDOI in a DMVPN network are true?(Choose true)
A. Direct spoke-to-spoke traffic is black-holed.
B. Rekeying requires an exclusive IGMP join in the mGRE interface
C. The crypto map is applied to the sub interface of each spoke.
D. If a group member rekey operation fails, it must wait for the SA lifetime to expire before it can reregister with the key server.
E. The DMVPN hub can act as the GDOI key server.
F. DMVPN spokes with tunnel protection allow traffic to be encrypted to the hub
Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
For which two reasons BVI is required in the Transparent Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two)
A. BVI is required for the inspection of IP traffic.
B. The firewall can perform routing on bridged interfaces.
C. BVI is required if routing is disabled on the firewall.
D. BVI is required if more than two interfaces are in a bridge group.
E. BVI is required for the inspection of non-IP traffic.
F. BVI can manage the device without having an interface that is configured for routing.
Answer: DF
400-251
QUESTION 3
The computer at 10.10.10.4 on your network has been infected by a botnet that directs traffic to a malware site at 168.65.201.120. Assuming that filtering will be performed on a Cisco ASA. 400-251 dumps
What command can you use to block all current and future connections from the infected host?
A. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip any host 10.10.10.4
B. shun 10.10.10.4 168.65.201.120 6000 80
C. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip host 10.10.10.4 host 168.65.201.120
D. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip host 168.65.201.120 host 10.10.10.4
E. shun 168.65.201.120 10.10.10.4 6000 80
Answer: C

QUESTION 4
IKEv2 provide greater network attack resiliency against a DoS attack than IKEv1 by utilizing which two functionalities?(Choose two)
A. with cookie challenge IKEv2 does not track the state of the initiator until the initiator respond with cookie.
B. Ikev2 perform TCP intercept on all secure connections
C. IKEv2 only allows symmetric keys for peer authentication
D. IKEv2 interoperates with IKEv1 to increase security in IKEv1
E. IKEv2 only allows certificates for peer authentication
F. An IKEv2 responder does not initiate a DH exchange until the initiator responds with a cookie
Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
Which five of these are criteria for rule-based rogue classification of access points by the cisco Wireless LAN controller? (Choose five)
A. MAC address range
B. MAC address range number of clients it has
C. open authentication
D. whether it matches a user-configured SSID
E. whether it operates on an authorized channel
F. minimum RSSI
G. time of day the rogue operates
H. Whether it matches a managed AP SSID
Answer: BCDFH

QUESTION 6
What port has IANA assigned to the GDOI protocol ?
A. UDP 4500
B. UDP 1812
C. UDP 500
D. UDP 848
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When attempting to use basic Http authentication to authenticate a client,which type of HTTP massage should the server use? 400-251 dumps
A. HTTP 200 with a WWW-authenticate header.
B. HTTP 401 with a WWW-authenticate header.
C. Http 302 with an authenticate header.
D. HTTP 407.
Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two statement about the DES algorithm are true?(Choose two)
A. It uses a 64-bit key block size and its effective key length is 65 bits
B. It uses a 64-bits key block size and its effective key length is 56 bits
C. It is a stream cripher that can be used with any size input
D. It is more efficient in software implements than hardware implementations.
E. It is vulnerable to differential and linear cryptanalysis
F. It is resistant to square attacks
Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which Three statement about cisco IPS manager express are true? (Choose three)
A. It provides a customizable view of events statistics.
B. It Can provision policies based on risk rating.
C. It Can provision policies based on signatures.
D. It Can provision policies based on IP addresses and ports.
E. It uses vulnerability-focused signature to protect against zero-day attacks.
F. It supports up to 10 sensors.
Answer: ABF

QUESTION 10
In Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC. which web policy enables failed Layer 2 authentication to fall back to WebAuth authentication with a user name and password?
A. On MAC Filter Failure
B. Pass through
C. Splash Page Web Redirect
D. Conditional Web Redirect
E. Authentication
Answer: A

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