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640-875 SPNGN1: Latest Cisco CCNA SP 640-875 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Building Cisco Service Provider Next Generation Networks, Part 1 (SPNGN1) v1.2: 640-875 exam. Share the latest 640-875 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers.
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640-875 SPNGN1 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spngn1.html

Latest effective Cisco 640-875 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a Cisco switch?
A. show ip interfaces fa0/1
B. show interfaces fa0/1
C. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport
D. show ip interfaces brief
E. show interfaces switchport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 2
This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router.
Which configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?
S7#show cdp neighbors<OUTPUT OMITTED> Device ID Local Intrfce Holdtme Capability Platform Port IDPE7 Fas 0/2 163 R ASR9K Ser Gig 0/0/0/0S78 Fas
0/23 146 S I ME-3400E- Fas 0/21S8 Fas 0/21 178 S I ME-
3400E- Fas 0/21 *Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %ETHCNTR-3-
HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD: Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold. Considered as loop-back.*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting Fa0/2 in err-disable
state*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/2, changed state to down S7#show interface fa0/2FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (err-disabled) Hardware is Fast Ethernet,
address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type
is 10/100BaseTX input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters never Input queue:
0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes,
0 no buffer Received 484423 broadcasts (167203 multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 167203 multicast, 0 pause input 0 input packets with dribble condition detected
972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 PAUSE output 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces gi0/0/0/0GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down Interface state transitions: 4 Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8) Internet address is
192.168.107.70/24 MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit) reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255 Encapsulation ARPA, Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD, link type is force-up output flow control is off, input flow control is off
loopback not set, ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:00, output
00:00:35 Last clearing of “show interface” counters never 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops 172486 drops for
unrecognized upper-level protocol Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total
output drops Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets 0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 4 carrier transitions
A. Enable loopback line on the S7 Fa0/2 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
B. Enable duplex half on the PE7 Gi0/0/0/0 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
C. Change S7 Fa0/2 interface to duplex full and speed 100 then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
D. Just need to no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
E. Just need to shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 3
If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 4
Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose three.)
A. Console port
B. Modem port
C. Virtual terminal lines
D. Switch fabric interface
E. Aux port
F. ManagementEthernet0/RSP0/CPU0/0
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q5Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link. Which action must be taken to allow these two
configurations?
The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2. The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal routers of Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about classful or classless routing protocol operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information with theirrouting updates.
B. Variable-length subnet masks are supported when using classful routing protocols.
C. Examples of classless routing protocols include RIPv1, EIGRP, OSPF, andIS-IS.
D. Classful routing protocols do not support discontiguous subnets.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

 

QUESTION 7
When EIGRP is enabled on Cisco IOS XR, which EIGRP feature is on by default?
A. no auto-summary
B. stub routing
C. unequal cost paths load-balancing
D. no ip eigrp split-horizon
E. eigrp authentication
Correct Answer: AExplanation

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q8

Two routers are named R1 and R2. R1 runs Cisco IOS Software. R2 runs Cisco IOS XR Software. To form an EIGRP IPv6 adjacency between the two routers, which three configurations must you add? (Choose three.)
A. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv4 address.
B. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv6 address.
C. On R1, enter the no shutdown command inside the IPv6 EIGRP process.
D. On R1 and R2, enter the eigrp no shutdown command inside the interfaces.
E. On R1, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
F. On R2, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement about VRFs is true?
A. One interface can be a member of multiple VRFs.
B. Each VRF has its own routing table, but it has a shared FIB.
C. Each VRF has its own routing table and its own FIB.
D. Each VRF has its own routing table, and it does not have an FIB.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 10
You plan to configure NAT by using these guidelines:
Implement NAT for the inside network 192.168.1.0/128 to the range of 209.165.201.1 to 209.165.201.5/128.
Create a static association for the server 192.168.1.129 to the public IP address of 209.165.201.6.
Implement PAT for the IP address range of 192.168.2.0/24 with the outside interface.
Which commands should you use to configure NAT?
A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 0.0.0.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description
PublicWan
ip nat outside
B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA overload
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q11

How many IP addresses does Router1 have that are available for DHCP clients?
A. 100
B. 99
C. 254
D. 199
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of ICMP message is generated when a datagram is discarded because the TTL reaches a value of 0?
A. Type 0 (Echo Reply)
B. Type 12 (Parameter Problem)
C. Type 11 (Time Exceeded)
D. Type 16 (Information Reply)
E. Type 10 (Source Quench)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 13
In IPv6, which kind of record is used for reverse lookups?
A. nibble
B. AAAA
C. PTR
D. APL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q14

A Cisco IOS Router has the configuration that is shown in the exhibit. The Cisco IOS Router is replaced by a Cisco IOS XR device. To duplicate the IPv6 EIGRP parameters of the Cisco IOS Router, which configuration should you use on the
Cisco IOS XR device?
A. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
B. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv6
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
C. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
ipv6 eigrp 100
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
ipv6 router eigrp 100
!
ipv6 router eigrp 100
no shutdown
exit
commit
D. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
commit
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
commit
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
commit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 15
DOCSIS architecture includes which two primary components? (Choose two.)A. a DSL modem
B. a cable modem
C. CMTS
D. UMTS
E. an IP PBX
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

 

QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag the WAN technologies from the left and drop them on the correct descriptions on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q16Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag the PPPoE negotiation steps from the left and drop them in order on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q17Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 18
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q18 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-4 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-5 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-6Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 19
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q19 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-4Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 20
At what layer of the OSI model is the Label Distribution Protocol present?
A. data link
B. transport
C. application
D. presentation
E. session
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 21
Which subnetwork mask should be used in a point-to-point link in order to use IPv4 address block more efficiently?
A. 209.165.201.0/32
B. 209.165.201.0/31
C. 209.165.201.0/30
D. 209.165.201.0/29
E. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-5Customer A site 1 is reporting to the service provider that they cannot reach Customer A site 2 networks.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. one of the PE routers is adding summarization incorrectly
B. incorrect network statement
C. ospf area-id configured incorrectly
D. configuration missing subnets keyword
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 23
Which three are features present on both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose three.)
A. connectivity tests
B. address assignment
C. information error messaging
D. address resolution
E. mobile IPv4 support
F. multicast group management
G. mobile IPv6 support
H. fragmentation needed notification
Correct Answer: ACH
Explanation

 

QUESTION 24
Company policy only allows SSH for remote access into Cisco routers. Which configuration would only allow SSH?
A. access-lists 101 deny tcp any eq telnet
B. transport input SSH
C. access-class 101 in
D. access-class 101 out
E. transport preferred SSH
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 25
You are designing a network in accordance with the hierarchical network design model. The distribution layer provides which three functionalities? (Choose three.)
A. workgroup segmentation
B. high-speed switching
C. connectivity to workstations
D. policy-based connectivity
E. WAN connection aggregation at the edge
F. 802.1x security
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 26
You have a LAN that has three computers. The computers are connected by a switch. The computers are in the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Which network device enables you to connect the LAN to the Internet?
A. a switch
B. a hub
C. a router
D. a DSL modem in bridge mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 27
You plan to implement QoS on a network, using these four classes:
A class for real-time applications
A class for interactive applications
A class for batch applications
A scavenger class
Which two classes are interactive applications? (Choose two.)
A. email
B. SSH
C. database updates
D. IP telephony
E. file transfers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 28
Which command assigns an IP address to the Loopback1 interface on a Cisco IOS Router?
A. ip address 192.168.41.111 255.255.255.240
B. set ip 127.0.0.1/32
C. ip address 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 169.254.47.81 255.255.0.0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 29
You are configuring manual route summarization in EIGRP. Which two networks are summarized into 10.134.17.64/27? (Choose two.)
A. 10.134.17.64 255.255.255.240
B. 10.134.17.100/30
C. 10.134.17.0 255.255.255.128
D. 10.134.17.92/30
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

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642-889 SPEDGE: Latest Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-889 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Edge Network Services (SPEDGE): “642-889 exam“. Share the latest 642-889 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 642-889 pdf online Download, 642-889 YouTube video online learning to improve skills! Ciscoexampdf share 30 Practice test questions for FREE! Get the full 642-889 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/642-889.html (Total questions:126 Q&A)

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642-889 SPEDGE – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spedge.html

Latest effective Cisco 642-889 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In which Cisco IOS XR configuration mode is the redistribute static command applied to enable the redistribution of
static VRF routes between the PE routers?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-router)#
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf)#
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf-af)#
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q2PE1 and PE2 are advertising the same subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to PE3. Which PE advertised subnet is installed at the
PE3 XYZ BGP table?
A. PE2 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
B. PE2 subnet because it has the same export RT value as export RT on PE3
C. PE1 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
D. PE1 subnet because it has the same export RT value as import RT on PE3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3lead4pass 642-889 exam question q3On PE7, what is the PWtype on the p2p ac-pw named “testpw”?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. PPP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
When implementing CSC services, which two methods can be used to exchange label information between the
downstream CSC customer carrier and the CSC backbone carrier? (Choose two.)
A. using MP-BGP
B. using RSVP
C. using IGP and LDP
D. using back-to-back VRF
E. using front VRF and internal VRF
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring VPLS BGP-based autodiscovery on a Cisco IOS XE PE router. Which two configurations
must be included for proper implementation? (Choose two.)
A. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
B. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community extended
C. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
D. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community-eBGP
E. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
F. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Which CE-to-PE routing protocol implements the down bit as a loop prevention mechanism?
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for encryption that is
often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
When using the Cisco EVC software infrastructure, a double-tagged frame with a customer VLAN of 10 and a service
provider VLAN of 150 will be best matched by which encapsulation configuration?
A. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q any
B. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 150
C. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 50-200
D. encapsulation dot1q 10
E. encapsulation dot1q 150
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 642-889 exam question q9

Given the output shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The configured remote AS for neighbor 10.1.1.1 is 1234.
B. Both prefixes that are referenced by network commands will be visible with the show bgp command from the
information that is shown in the output.
C. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 cannot learn any routes from this router.
D. The router cannot learn any routes for neighbor 10.1.1.1.
E. Routes from the Internet VRF that are injected into BGP through redistribution will be advertised to neighbor
10.1.1.1.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
When implementing EoMPLS PWs, which configuration is optional?
A. matching PW ID on both ends
B. Xconnect
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. control word
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
When troubleshooting EoMPLS configuration problems, which three parameters must match between the two ends of
the pseudowire configurations? (Choose three.)
A. control word usage
B. MTU size
C. pseudowire ID
D. Xconnect group name
E. EFP subinterface number
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
A network engineer working for a very large financial institution must migrate the legacy Frame Relay and ATM virtual
circuits over a MPLS VPN solution. Which option is a benefit in choosing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN versus any other Layer 2
VPN design?
A. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design offers better scalability for large organizations.
B. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less customer edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
C. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN solution provides the possibility to implement overlapping IP addressing.
D. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less provider edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13-1

On PE7, how many multiprotocol IBGP routes are learned from PE8 and what is the next-hop IP address? (Choose
two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10.8.1.1
E. 172.16.8.1
F. 192.168.108.81
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 14
When implementing a Layer 2 transport subinterface on a Cisco IOS XR router, which encapsulation option is used to
match any packets that are not matched by any other service instances?
A. default
B. untagged
C. any
D. tag
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding Cisco 6PE operations are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The top label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
B. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
C. The top label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
D. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q16Which two descriptions outline the traffic flow among the three sites? (Choose two.)
A. The MNL site communicates with the XYZ and ABC sites.
B. The XYZ and ABC sites communicate using the default route that points to the MNL site.
C. XYZ sees the MNL and ABC routes.
D. ABC sees the MNL and XYZ routes.
E. The MNL site acts as a central site for the ABC and XYZ sites.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 17
Which two Layer 2 VPN methods support interworking between customer sites with different Layer 2 encapsulation at
each end (for example, Frame Relay to Ethernet interworking)? (Choose two.)
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. GET VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 18
A company recently completed a third company acquisition and is requesting to deploy a point- to-point VPN technology
over the IP core network to extend their IGP domain. The company core network is not MPLS-enabled yet. Which
technology matches these requirements?
A. Any Transport over MPLS
B. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol version 3
C. Virtual Private LAN Service
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Within the service provider IP/MPLS core network, what must be implemented to enable Layer 3 MPLS VPN services?
A. IS-IS or OSPF on all the PE and P routers
B. MP-BGP between the PE routers
C. RSVP on all the PE and P routers
D. targeted LDP between the PE routers
E. LDP between the CE and PE routers
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, what is used on the PE router to isolate potential overlapping routing
information between different customers?
A. route targets
B. VRFs
C. VC IDs
D. pseudowire IDs
E. pseudowire classes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which BGP extended community is used to control the distribution of VPN routing information and to identify routers that
may receive a set of routes that carry the community?
A. SOO
B. RT
C. opaque
D. route origin
E. RD
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
When implementing VPLS on Cisco routers, which data structure resembles a virtual switch and is used for learning the
MAC addresses?
A. VRF
B. VFI
C. SVI
D. BVI
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 23
When implementing EoMPLS on Cisco IOS XR routers, which command under the l2vpn configuration mode is used to
define the pseudowire?
A. pbb
B. xconnect
C. connect
D. bridge
E. bridge-domain
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24-1

On PE7, which encapsulation method is used on the pseudowire that connects to the 10.8.1.1 neighbor?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. IP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-1 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-2

On PE7, which three statements are correct regarding the MPLS VPN configurations used to support the connectivity
between the CE7 and CE8 sites? (Choose three.)
A. The RD is 1:1
B. The import and export RTs are 1:1
C. Interface GiO/0/0/0 is associated to the “default” VRF
D. The network that connects PE7to CE7 is redistributed into multiprotocol IBGP
E. The multiprotocol IBGP routes learned have a BGP origin code of “i”
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 26
When implementing H-VPLS with QinQ access on Cisco Metro Ethernet switches, which two commands enable the
QinQ tagging? (Choose two.)
A. encapsulation dot1q {customer-vlan} second-tag {sp-vlan}
B. encapsulation dot1q {sp-vlan} second-tag {customer-vlan}
C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel
D. switchport mode trunk
E. switchport access vlan {sp-vlan}
F. switchport access vlan {customer-vlan}
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
What is an advantage of using the Cisco EVC infrastructure to implement carrier-class Ethernet services that are not
available on non-EVC-capable platforms?
A. PW redundancy
B. interworking support
C. PW stitching support
D. flexible frame-matching support and VLAN tag manipulation
E. local cross-connect support
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
What is the purpose of the route distinguisher in a service provider network?
A. to identify which prefixes should be imported
B. to identify customer local prefixes
C. to identify customer global prefixes
D. to identify which prefixes should be exported from BGP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 29
The Cisco IOS XR address-family ipv4 labeled-unicast and the Cisco IOS/IOS XE neighbor send-label commands are
used in which MPLS implementation?
A. Cisco MPLS TE
B. CSC using MP-BGP for label exchange
C. back-to-back VRF
D. AToM
E. VPLS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which two protocols can be used for VPLS signaling on a Cisco IOS XR router? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. LDP
C. TDP
D. RSVP
E. PBB
Correct Answer: AB

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Hot Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud? 210-451 dumps
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? 210-451 dumps
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock? 210-451 dumps
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 9
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which menu should be used to create a username and password in the Cisco Unified CME GUI?
A. configure andgt; pilot number
B. configure andgt; extension
C. configure andgt; phones
D. configure andgt; system parameters
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The receptionist has a Cisco 7965 phone with 24-button side-car configuration. The side-car button of the phone does not light up when the line is in use. Which phone configuration is missing?
A. Subscriber calling search space
B. Location
C. BLF audible alert setting
D. Phone button template
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A user is assigned more than one directory number. Which option allows one voicemail box to serve both directory numbers?
A. Alternate Extension
B. Notification Devices
C. Alternate Names
D. Message Settings
E. Caller Input
F. Mailbox
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which configuration causes PSTN users to experience a fail tone for every other call when trying to reach a particular number on Cisco Unified CME?
A. ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
B. Duplicate ephone-dn is not assigned to the ephone.
C. ephone is not registered.
D. ephone does not exist for the ephone-dn.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration andgt; Update System Info
B. Configure andgt; System Parameters
C. Configure andgt; Phones
D. Configure andgt; Extensions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
When you attempt to add a phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using the GUI interface, the error andquot;No New Phone to Addandquot; appears. Which command is causing the error?
A. No auto-reg-ephone
B. No service ephone-reg
C. SIP-ua no auto-reg-ephone
D. stcapp ccm-group 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Where can an engineer find how many unused Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing Standard licenses remain?
A. CAR
B. Cisco Unified Reporting
C. Cisco Unified Communications Enterprise License Manager
D. RTMT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which two profile types are needed to enable a user for IM and Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. voicemail profile
C. Jabber profile
D. device profile
E. network access profile
F. service profile
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 21
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A systems administrator wants to integrate a new Cisco Unity Connection cluster with an existing directory in the enterprise. What is one valid user import source?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager AXL server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI server
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager TFTP server
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MOH server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide?
A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * *
B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # #
C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * *
D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # #
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An administrator wants to gauge the load and performance capacity of Cisco Unified Communication Manager devices, including conference bridges, gateways, and trunks. 210-060 dumps Which report would the administrator run?
A. CAR
B. CDR
C. SIP
D. RTMT
E. CUBE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the andquot;?andquot; button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings andgt; User Preferences.
D. Select Settings andgt; Device Configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which two user types are available to a voice engineer adding a user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. User with mailbox
B. Imported user
C. Synch user
D. User without mailbox
E. Local admin user with mailbox
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
Which two components are needed before a user can be assigned to a Presence node? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Service
B. service profile
C. phone button template
D. mobility profile
E. device profile
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
Which profile must be added to the end user profile when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Presence?
A. Device profile
B. UC service profile
C. Extension mobility profile
D. SIP profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which four actions can be selected with the Bulk Administration Tool in Cisco Unity Connection? 210-060 dumps (Choose four.)
A. Create
B. Modify
C. Migrate
D. Update
E. Delete
F. Export
G. Purge
H. Manage
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 32
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 33
Which two benefits does Cisco Unified IM and Presence Service bring to businesses? (Choose two.)
A. enhances productivity by using availability awareness and reduce communications delays
B. provides Enterprise IM capabilities, such as persistent chat, group chat, and IM history
C. provides and streamlines enterprise audio and video communications
D. enhances communications by providing multipoint conference capabilities
E. supports standard-based XMPP clients by supporting native SIP/SIMPLE and H.323 protocols
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 34
A voice engineer wants to monitor system activities using the RTMT tool.
Which step is next after navigating to Cisco Unified Reporting?
A. system andgt; scheduler andgt; CDR
B. system reports andgt; unified CM data summary andgt; generate report
C. system andgt; tools andgt; reports
D. tools andgt; CDR analysis and reporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which type of template should be used when a network engineer adds a new call center agent in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Contact
B. Call handler
C. User
D. Notification
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
A single user receives a high amount of inbound voice messages and checks them only via email. The user cannot receive or send messages as the mailbox is full. Which option provides a permanent solution to this problem?
A. message aging policies
B. mailbox size quota
C. multiple mailbox stores
D. call-routing rules
E. restriction tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which CAR module report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. gateway utilization
B. gateway summary
C. gateway detail
D. gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which IM and Presence chat feature allows for an always-available chat room that remains active, even if all of the participants leave the chat?
A. Personal
B. Group
C. Persistent
D. Ad-hoc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
In which section of Cisco Unified Communications Manager are Call Detail Records viewed?
A. Cisco Unified Serviceability
B. Cisco Unified OS Administration
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration
E. Cisco Unified Disaster Recovery
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
210-060 dumps Which Cisco Unity Connection user field is used to map to an LDAP directory?
A. SMTP Address
B. Last Name
C. Alias
D. Display Name
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 17
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 18
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? 200-125 dumps
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 29
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 30
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch? 200-125 dumps (choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

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642-999 dumps
QUESTION 1
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?
A. This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B. This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C. This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D. This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D. In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G. In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco VSM VM
B. VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C. VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E. VMware vCenter server
F. Fibre Channel VMFS volume
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)
A. QoS policy
B. ACL
C. NetFlow
D. port security
E. network control policy
F. VLAN or VLANs
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 5
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? 642-999 dumps (Choose three.)
A. port profile
B. DVS
C. data center
D. folder
E. VMware vCenter IP address
F. VM port group
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
If there are four I/O module links from the Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 Blade Chassis to the Cisco Unified Computing System 6248UP Fabric Interconnect, which dynamic vNICs can be defined?
A. 9
B. 16
C. 24
D. 48
E. 54
F. 112
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
When adding a VMware ESXi host to the Distributed Virtual Switch, what are two risks of migrating a VMNIC that is associated to vSwitch 0? (Choose two.)
A. loss of access to the management IP interface
B. duplicate IP address error
C. duplicate MAC address error
D. loss of VMware ESXi communication with VMware vCenter
E. DVS port group will not appear in the VM network settings
F. DVS port group will overwrite the port groups in vSwitch 0
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which VMware ESXi 5.0 CLI command will validate PassThru interfaces when they are available?
A. vem status -v
B. vempassthru-v
C. vemintf -v
D. vemifconfig -v
E. vempts -v
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three items are supported operating systems of the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle Solaris 11
B. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.0
C. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 SP3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
E. Ubuntu Server 12.2
F. SLES 11
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 11
Which item is required for communication between Cisco Unified Computing System Manager and VMware vCenter? 642-999 dumps
A. VeriSign Digital Certificates
B. RSA Digital Certificates
C. Cisco Unified Computing System Manager Extension Key
D. VeriSign Plug-In
E. WMware vCenter Certificate Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
How many certificates does Cisco Unified Computing System Manager have to export to communicate with VMware vCenter server if the VMware ESXi hosts are all running version 5.0 or higher?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. 16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What is the maximum number of ports on a VMware vCenter Distributed Virtual Switch?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 1024
D. 4096
E. 8192
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
In the Create Dynamic vNIC Connection Policy dialog box, there is a configurable field titled Protection. What is the significance of the three choices for Protection?
A. allows reserve vNICs to be allocated out of the spares pool
B. enables hardware-based failover
C. enables static binding of the VM port profile to dynamic vNICs
D. selects the primary fabric association for dynamic vNICs
E. allows dynamic vNICs to be reserved for fabric failover
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
How does a dynamic vNIC get allocated?
A. Dynamic vNICs are assigned to VMs in VMware vCenter.
B. Dynamic vNICs can only be bound to the service profile through an updating template.
C. Dynamic vNICs are bound directly to a service profile.
D. Dynamic vNICs are assigned by binding a port profile to the service profile.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
After staging a VEM file on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host in the /tmp directory, what is the correct command syntax to install the VEM? 642-999 dumps
A. esxcli software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
B. esxcli software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
C. esxupdate software vib install d /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.zip -maintenance-mode
D. esxupdate software vib install v /tmp/VEM500-20110825132140-BG-release.vib -maintenance-mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which network driver is required on a VMware ESXi 5.0 host for a vNIC to enter Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. VMXNET3
B. Vlance
C. Flexible
D. E1000e
E. VMXNET5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which virtual hardware version is required for a VM to enter the Cisco VM-FEX universal passthrough mode?
A. Version 5
B. Version 6
C. Version 7
D. Version 8
E. Version 9
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true concerning the Global Chassis Discovery policy configuration on the Cisco Unified Computing System Manager when using Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules with Cisco UCS 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. The link grouping preference should be set to discrete mode when the number of northbound links are not a power of 2.
B. Set the action policy-count higher than the actual number of uplinks; otherwise, the Cisco Unified Computing System servers will not be discovered.
C. For Cisco Unified Computing System implementations that mix I/O modules with different numbers of links, it is best to manually reacknowledge the chassis in order to use all available links.
D. Automatic reacknowledgement due to chassis discovery is never disruptive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is the most accurate concerning the link configuration between Cisco Unified Computing System 22XX I/O modules and Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects? 642-999 dumps
A. Port channels are always recommended when using source-dest-mac load balancing.
B. The addition of links to a port channel requires a reacknowledgement.
C. You cannot mix and match discrete links and port channeling for different chassis when using 22XX.
D. Port channels do not require a Global Chassis Discovery policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is not a feature of the Cisco Unified Computing System VIC-1280 adaptor?
A. capable of up to 256 virtual interfaces
B. supports FCoE
C. supports Cisco VM-FEX
D. compatible with the C- or B-Series Cisco Unified Computing System servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is true with respect to recovery from failure with automatic pinning that is configured on a cluster of Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnects?
A. By default, server MAC addresses are pinned to uplink interfaces using PIN groups.
B. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the affected servers will use NIC teaming to re-establish connectivity on the second fabric interconnect.
C. When a northbound fabric interconnect link goes down, the fabric interconnect will send a gratuitous ARP to the northbound switch to announce the servers on the new port.
D. In the event that all uplink ports on the fabric interconnect lose connectivity, the 22XX I/O module shuts down all of the host ports until at least one uplink is restored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How does a Cisco Unified Computing System react when configured for disjoint Layer 2 domains?
A. Automatic pinning is disabled; VLAN membership must be statically pinned to the uplink ports.
B. VLANs must be divided between the fabric interconnects using PIN groups.
C. The VLAN traffic for a disjoint network can only travel along an uplink that is specifically assigned to this VLAN and is selectively excluded from all other uplinks.
D. When you configure disjoint Layer 2 networks, you must assign VLANs to uplink interfaces.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 4          100-105 dumps
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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The best and most updated Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 300-135 exam test, http://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html dumps exam practice questions free update, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching, high quality Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps exam training materials.

Question No : 1
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 2
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Answer: B

Question No : 3
Exhibit:
300-135 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) 300-135 dumps
A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.
Answer: D,F

Question No : 4
You enabled CDP on two Cisco Routers which are connected to each other. The Line and Protocol status for the interfaces on both routers show as UP but the routers do not see each other a CDP neighbors. Which layer of the OSI model does the problem most likely exist?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Application
D. Data-Link
E. Network
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which two of the following options are categories of Network Maintenance tasks? (choose two)
A. Firefighting
B. Interrupt-driven
C. Policy-based
D. Structured
E. Foundational
Answer: B,D

Question No : 6
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Answer: D

Question No : 7
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Answer: B,D

Question No : 8
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 dumps
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
FCAPS is a network maintenance model defined by ISO. It stands for which of the following? (choose three)
A. Fault Management
B. Action Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Protocol Management
E. Security Management
Answer: A,C,E

Question No : 10
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Answer: B

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Question No : 1
Which two pieces of information are provided by the show controllers serial 0 command? (Choose two.)
A. the type of cable that is connected to the interface.
B. The uptime of the interface
C. the status of the physical layer of the interface
D. the full configuration of the interface
E. the interface’s duplex settings
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
The show controller command provides hardware-related information useful to troubleshoot and diagnose issues with Cisco router interfaces. The Cisco 12000 Series uses a distributed architecture with a central command-line interface (CLI) at the Gigabit Route Processor (GRP) and a local CLI at each line card.

Question No : 2
Which two switch states are valid for 802.1w? (Choose two.)
A. listening
B. backup
C. disabled
D. learning
E. discarding
Answer : D,E

Explanation:
Port States There are only three port states left in RSTP that correspond to the three possible operational states. The 802.1D disabled, blocking, and listening states are merged into a unique 802.1w discarding state.
200-155
Question No : 3            200-155
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Answer : B

Explanation:
Cisco ACI is a comprehensive SDN architecture. This policy-based automation solution supports a business-relevant application policy language, greater scalability through a distributed enforcement system, and greater network visibility. These benefits are achieved through the integration of physical and virtual environments under one policy model for networks, servers, storage, services, and security.

Question No : 4
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D. It eliminates the need for a GSS.
Answer : B

Question No : 5
What is the default VLAN on an access port?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 1024
Answer : B

Question No : 6
What is the best way to verify that a host has a path to other hosts in different networks?
A. Ping the loopback address.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping the local interface address.
D. Ping the remote network.
Answer : D

Explanation:
Ping is a tool that helps to verify IP-level connectivity; PathPing is a tool that detects packet loss over multiple-hop trips. When troubleshooting, the ping command is used to send an ICMP Echo Request to a target host name or IP address. Use Ping whenever you want to verify that a host computer can send IP packets to a destination host. You can also use the 200-155 Ping tool to isolate network hardware problems and incompatible configurations. If you call ipconfig /all and receive a response, there is no need to ping the loopback address and your own IP address Ipconfig has already done so in order to generate the report. It is best to verify that a route exists between the local computer and a network host by first using ping and the IP address of the network host to which you want to connect.

Question No : 7
Which protocol authenticates connected devices before allowing them to access the LAN?
A.802.1d
B.802.11
C.802.1w
D.802.1x
Answer : D

Explanation:
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN. The term ‘supplicant’ is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols. The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicants identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport’s arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.

Question No : 8
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?
A. determining the path cost
B. electing designated ports
C. learning the sender bridge ID
D. assigning the port ID
Answer : B

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.

Question No : 9
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
A. Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B. Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C. Change the operational mode to static access.
D. Change the administrative mode to access.
Answer : A

Question No : 10
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

Explanation:
Collision Domains A collision domain is an area of a single LAN where end stations contend for access to the network because all end stations are connected to a shared physical medium. If two connected devices transmit onto the media at the same time, a collision occurs. When a collision occurs, a JAM signal is sent on the network, indicating that a collision has occurred and that devices should ignore any fragmented data associated with the collision. Both sending devices back off sending their data for a random amount and then try again if the medium is free for transmission. Therefore, collisions effectively delay transmission of data, lowering the effective throughput available to a device. The more devices that are attached to a collision domain, the greater the 200-155 chances of collisions; this results in lower bandwidth and performance for each device attached to the collision domain. Bridges and switches terminate the physical signal path of a collision domain, allowing you to segment separate collision domains, breaking them up into multiple smaller pieces to provide more bandwidth per user within the new collision domains formed.

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