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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-250 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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The latest 210-250 pdf practice questions and answers, pass Cisco 210-250 exams test easily. Get latest 210-250 exam dumps at best prices, try free demo. latest 210-250 exam dumps PDF, http://www.lead4pass.com/210-250.html VCE and practice exam questions. 100% accurate 210-250 answers.

QUESTION 1
A Cisco TelePresence VCS displays this alarm: “Root password is set to default.” How can this security warning be addressed?
A. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > User Settings, and change the root password.
B. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Administrator and issue the command xconfig root set passwd.
C. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command set password, and enter the new password when prompted.
D. Use SSH to log in to the Cisco TelePresence VCS as Root, issue the command passwd, and enter the new password when prompted.
E. Use the Cisco TelePresence VCS web user interface, choose Administration > System Settings, and change the root password.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-250
The numbers on the floor plan represent the horizontal average lux readings for nine different room areas. Considering Cisco best practices, what can you conclude about the lighting conditions?
A. Only three areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
B. Only three areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
C. All areas meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
D. The areas do not meet the room lighting levels that are recommended by Cisco.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
Which two methods are used to navigate the menu options of an auto attendant on an MCU? (Choose two.)
A. KPML
B. DTMF
C. PiP
D. PoP
E. FECC
F. SCCP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-065 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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2017 latest Cisco 210-065 exam training materials, pass all IT exam quickly and easily at the first time with Cisco 210-065 exam dumps. Try the free demo of the latest Cisco 210-065 exam real questions and answers.

QUESTION 1
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
210-065
A technician is reviewing the search history details on a Cisco 210-065 TelePresence VCS for a recent call that failed. What was the cause for the call setup failure?
A. A local call policy rule denied the call.
B. The source alias matched an entry in the registration deny list.
C. The originating caller was not authenticated.
D. The source alias origin is unknown.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 5
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Here we have a situation where one switch is using active mode, which is an LACP mode, and the other is using desirable, which is a PAGP mode. You can not mix the LACP and PAGP protocols to form an etherchannel. Here is a summary of the various etherchannel modes:
EtherChannel PAgP Modes
Mode Description
auto Places a port into a passive negotiating state, in which the port responds to PAgP packets it receives but does not start PAgP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
desirable Places a port into an active negotiating state, in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending PAgP packets.
This mode is not supported when the EtherChannel members are from differ- ent switches in the switch stack (cross-stack EtherChannel).
EtherChannel LACP Modes
Mode Description
active Places a port into an active negotiating state in which the port starts negotia- tions with other ports by sending LACP packets.
passive Places a port into a passive negotiating state in which the 300-115 dumps port responds to LACP packets that it receives, but does not start LACP packet negotiation. This setting minimizes the transmission of LACP packets.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)
A. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
B. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
C. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
D. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
E. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
F. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
You can analyze network traffic passing through ports or VLANs by using SPAN or RSPAN to send a copy of the traffic to another port on the switch or on another switch that has been connected to a network analyzer or other monitoring or security device. SPAN copies (or mirrors) traffic received or sent (or both) on source ports or source VLANs to a destination port for analysis.
RSPAN supports source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports on different switches (or different switch stacks), enabling remote monitoring of multiple switches across your network.
The traffic for each RSPAN session is carried over a user-specified RSPAN VLAN that is dedicated for that RSPAN session in all participating switches.
The RSPAN traffic from the source ports or VLANs is copied into the 300-115 dumps RSPAN VLAN and forwarded over trunk ports carrying the RSPAN VLAN to a destination session monitoring the RSPAN VLAN. Each RSPAN source switch must have either ports or VLANs as RSPAN sources. The destination is always a physical port.

QUESTION 3
What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?
A. 0
B. 25
C. 50
D. 75
E. 100
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Physical Sequential Linkage
The switches are physically connected sequentially, as shown in Figure 3. A break in any one of the cables will result in the stack bandwidth being reduced to half of its full capacity. Subsecond timing mechanisms detect traffic problems and immediately institute failover. This mechanism restores dual path flow when the timing mechanisms detect renewed activity on the cable.
Figure 3. Cisco StackWise Technology Resilient Cabling

QUESTION 4
What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
F. 13
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Up to 9 Cisco Catalyst switches can be stacked together to build single logical StackWise switch since Cisco 300-115 dumps IOS XE Release 3.3.0SE. Prior to Cisco IOS XE Release3.3.0SE, up to 4 Cisco Catalyst switches could be stacked together.
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 5
A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?
A. No configuration must be added.
B. stack ID
C. IP address
D. VLAN information
E. VTP information
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Switch Stack Offline Configuration
You can use the offline configuration feature to provision (to supply a configuration to) a new switch before it joins the switch stack. You can configure in advance the stack member number, the switch type, and the inter- faces associated with a switch that is not currently part of the stack. The configuration that you create on the switch stack is called the provisioned configuration . The switch that is added to the switch stack and that re- ceives this configuration is called the provisioned
switch.
You manually create the provisioned configuration through the switch stack-member-number provision type global configuration command. The provisioned configuration is automatically created when a switch is added to a switch stack and when no provisioned configuration exists.
When you configure the interfaces associated with a provisioned switch (for example, as part of a VLAN), the switch stack accepts the configuration, and the information appears in the 300-115 dumps running configuration. The interface associated with the provisioned switch is not active, operates as if it is administratively shut down, and the no shutdown interface configuration command does not return it to active service. The interface associated with the provisioned switch does not appear in the display of the specific feature; for example, it does not appear in the show vlan user EXEC command output.

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-360 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers – Youtube

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Question No : 1
Which three commands are part of the requirements on Cisco Catalyst 3850 series Switch with Cisco IOX XE to create a RADIUS authentication server group? (Choose three.)
A. authentication dot1x default local
B. aaa session-idcommon
C. dot1x system-auth-control
D. aaa new-model
E. local-auth wcm_eap_prof
F. security dot1x
Answer: B,C,D

Question No : 2
Which three configuration steps are necessary on the WLC when implementing central web authentication in conjunction with Cisco ISE. (Choose three.)
A. Set P2P Blocking Action to Drop.
B. Enable Security Layer 3 Web Policy.
C. Set NAC state to SNMP NAC.
D. Enable Allow AAA override.
E. Enable Security Layer 2 MAC Filtering.
F. Set NAC state to RADIUS NAC.
Answer: D,E,F

Question No : 3
An engineer must change the wireless authentication from WPA2-Personal to WPA2-Enterprise. Which three requirements are necessary? (Choose three.)
A. EAP
B. 802.1x
C. RADIUS
D. per-shared key
E. 802.11u
F. fast secure roaming
G. 802.11i
Answer: A,C,G
300-360 dumps
Question No : 4
A customer has deployed PEAP authentication with a Novell eDirectory LDAP Server. 300-360 dumps
Which authentication method must be configured on the client to support this deployment?
A. PEAP(EAP-MSCHAPv2)
B. PEAP(EAP-TTLS)
C. PEAP(EAP-GTC)
D. PEAP(EAP-WPA)
Answer: C

Question No : 5
An engineer is considering an MDM integration with Cisco ISE to assist with security for lost devices. Which two functions of MDM increase security for lost devices that access data from the network? (Choose two.)
A. PIN enforcement
B. Jailbreak/root detection
C. data wipe
D. data encryption
E. data loss prevention
Answer: A,C

Question No : 6
An engineer is configuring a new mobility anchor for a WLAN on the CLI with the config wlan mobility anchor add 3 10.10.10.10 command, but the command is failing. Which two conditions must be met to be able to enter this command? (Choose two.)
A. The anchor controller IP address must be within the management interface subnet.
B. The anchor controller must be in the same mobility group.
C. The WLAN must be enabled.
D. The mobility group keepalive must be configured.
E. The indicated WLAN ID must be present on the controller.
Answer: A,B

Question No : 7
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Answer: A

Question No : 8
When a wireless client uses WPA2 AES, which keys are created at the end of the four way handshake process between the client and the access point?  300-360 dumps
A. AES key, TKIP key, WEP key
B. AES key, WPA2 key, PMK
C. KCK, KEK, TK
D. KCK, KEK, MIC key
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which two events are possible outcomes of a successful RF jamming attack? (Choose
two.)
A. unauthentication association
B. deauthentication multicast
C. deauthentication broadcast
D. disruption of WLAN services
E. physical damage to AP hardware
Answer: D,E

Question No : 10
A Cisco WLC has been added to the network and Cisco ISE as a network device, but authentication is failing. Which configuration within the network device configuration should be verified?
A. shared secret
B. device ID
C. SNMP RO community
D. device interface credentials
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 400-251 PDF Exam Questions And Answers

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The best Cisco CCIE 400-251 exam pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 400-251 exam test, Cisco CCIE is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCIE 400-251 pdf training materials.

QUESTION 1
Which three statements about the Unicast RPF in strict mode and loose mode are true? (Choose three.)
A. Loose mode requires the source address to be present in the routing table.
B. Inadvertent packet loss can occur when loose mode is used with asymmetrical routing.
C. Interfaces in strict mode drop traffic with return that point to the Null 0 Interface.
D. Strict mode requires a default route to be associated with the uplink network interface.
E. Strict mode is recommended on interfaces that will receive packets only from the same subnet to which is assigned.
F. Both loose and strict modes are configured globally on the router.
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which two options are disadvantages of MPLS layers 3 VPN services? (Choose two.)
A. They requires cooperation with the service provider to implement transport of non-IP traffic.
B. SLAs are not supported by the service provider.
C. It requires customers to implement QoS to manage congestion in the network.
D. Integration between Layers 2 and 3 peering services is not supported.
E. They may be limited by the technology offered by the service provider.
F. They can transport only IPv6 routing traffic.
Answer: DE
400-251
QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the SHA-1 algorithm are true? (Choose two.)
A. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it always produces a unique hash for the same message.
B. The SHA-1 algorithm takes input message of any length and produces 160-bit hash output.
C. The SHA-1 algorithm is considered secure because it is possible to find a message from its hash.
D. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data confidentiality.
E. The purpose of the SHA-1 algorithm is to provide data authenticity.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
Which two statement about router Advertisement message are true? (Choose two.) 400-251 pdf
A. Local link prefixes are shared automatically.
B. Each prefix included in the advertisement carries lifetime information f Or that prefix.
C. Massage are sent to the miscast address FF02::1.
D. It support a configurable number of retransmission attempts for neighbor solicitation massage.
E. Flag setting are shared in the massage and retransmitted on the link.
F. Router solicitation massage are sent in response to router advertisement massage.
Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
Event Store is a component of which IPS application?
A. SensorApp
B. InterfaceApp
C. MainApp
D. NotificationApp
E. AuthenticationApp
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are two action you can take to protect against DDOS attacks on cisco router and switches? (Choose two.)
A. Rate limit SYN packets
B. Filter the RFC-1918 address space
C. configuration IP snooping
D. implement MAC address filtering
E. Configuration PIM-SM
Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements about SOX are true? (Choose two.)
A. SOX is an IEFT compliance procedure for computer systems security.
B. SOX is a US law.
C. SOX is an IEEE compliance procedure for IT management to produce audit reports.
D. SOX is a private organization that provides best practices for financial institution computer systems.
E. Section 404 of SOX is related to IT compliance.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
Which two of the following ICMP types and code should be allowed in a firewall to enable traceroute? (Choose two.)
A. Destination Unreachable-protocol Unreachable
B. Destination Unreachable-port Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded-Time to Live exceeded in Transit
D. Redirect-Redirect Datagram for the Host
E. Time Exceeded-Fragment Reassembly Time Exceeded
F. Redirect-Redirect Datagram for the Type of service and Host
Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which three statements about the Cisco IPS sensor are true? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot pair a VLAN with itself.
B. For a given sensing interface, an interface used in a VLAN pair can be a member of another inline interface pair.
C. For a given sensing interface, a VLAN can be a member of only one inline VLAN pair, however, a given VLAN can be a member of an inline VLAN pair on more than one sensing interface.
D. The order in which you specify the VLANs in a inline pair is significant.
E. A sensing interface in inline VLAN pair mode can have from 1 to 255 inline VLAN pairs.
Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about the MD5 Hash are true? (Choose two.)
A. Length of the hash value varies with the length of the message that is being hashed.
B. Every unique message has a unique hash value.
C. Its mathematically possible to find a pair of message that yield the same hash value.
D. MD5 always yields a different value for the same message if repeatedly hashed.
E. The hash value cannot be used to discover the message.
Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
A server with Ip address 209.165.202.150 is protected behind the inside of a cisco ASA or PIX security appliance and the internet on the outside interface. 400-251 pdf  User on the internet need to access the server at any time but the firewall administrator does not want to apply NAT to the address of the server because it is currently a public address, which three of the following command can be used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. static (inside,outside) 209.165.202.150 209.165.202.150 netmask 255.255.255.2″
B. nat (inside) 1 209.165.202.150 255.255.255.255
C. no nat-control
D. nat (inside) 0 209.16S.202.150 255.255.255.255
E. static (outside.insid) 209.165.202.150 209.165.202.150 netmask 255.255.255.255
F. access-tist no-nat permit ip host 209.165.202.150 any nat (inside) 0 access-list no-nat
Answer: ADF

QUESTION 12
Which three statement about VRF-Aware Cisco Firewall are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can run as more than one instance.
B. It supports both global and per-VRF commands and DoS parameters.
C. It can support VPN networks with overlapping address ranges without NAT.
D. It enables service providers to implement firewalls on PE devices.
E. It can generate syslog massages that are visible only to individual VPNs.
F. It enables service providers to deploy firewalls on customer devices.
Answer: ADE

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements about implementing GDOI in a DMVPN network are true?(Choose true)
A. Direct spoke-to-spoke traffic is black-holed.
B. Rekeying requires an exclusive IGMP join in the mGRE interface
C. The crypto map is applied to the sub interface of each spoke.
D. If a group member rekey operation fails, it must wait for the SA lifetime to expire before it can reregister with the key server.
E. The DMVPN hub can act as the GDOI key server.
F. DMVPN spokes with tunnel protection allow traffic to be encrypted to the hub
Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
For which two reasons BVI is required in the Transparent Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two)
A. BVI is required for the inspection of IP traffic.
B. The firewall can perform routing on bridged interfaces.
C. BVI is required if routing is disabled on the firewall.
D. BVI is required if more than two interfaces are in a bridge group.
E. BVI is required for the inspection of non-IP traffic.
F. BVI can manage the device without having an interface that is configured for routing.
Answer: DF
400-251
QUESTION 3
The computer at 10.10.10.4 on your network has been infected by a botnet that directs traffic to a malware site at 168.65.201.120. Assuming that filtering will be performed on a Cisco ASA. 400-251 dumps
What command can you use to block all current and future connections from the infected host?
A. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip any host 10.10.10.4
B. shun 10.10.10.4 168.65.201.120 6000 80
C. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip host 10.10.10.4 host 168.65.201.120
D. ip access-list extended BLOCK_BOT_OUT deny ip host 168.65.201.120 host 10.10.10.4
E. shun 168.65.201.120 10.10.10.4 6000 80
Answer: C

QUESTION 4
IKEv2 provide greater network attack resiliency against a DoS attack than IKEv1 by utilizing which two functionalities?(Choose two)
A. with cookie challenge IKEv2 does not track the state of the initiator until the initiator respond with cookie.
B. Ikev2 perform TCP intercept on all secure connections
C. IKEv2 only allows symmetric keys for peer authentication
D. IKEv2 interoperates with IKEv1 to increase security in IKEv1
E. IKEv2 only allows certificates for peer authentication
F. An IKEv2 responder does not initiate a DH exchange until the initiator responds with a cookie
Answer: AF

QUESTION 5
Which five of these are criteria for rule-based rogue classification of access points by the cisco Wireless LAN controller? (Choose five)
A. MAC address range
B. MAC address range number of clients it has
C. open authentication
D. whether it matches a user-configured SSID
E. whether it operates on an authorized channel
F. minimum RSSI
G. time of day the rogue operates
H. Whether it matches a managed AP SSID
Answer: BCDFH

QUESTION 6
What port has IANA assigned to the GDOI protocol ?
A. UDP 4500
B. UDP 1812
C. UDP 500
D. UDP 848
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When attempting to use basic Http authentication to authenticate a client,which type of HTTP massage should the server use? 400-251 dumps
A. HTTP 200 with a WWW-authenticate header.
B. HTTP 401 with a WWW-authenticate header.
C. Http 302 with an authenticate header.
D. HTTP 407.
Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two statement about the DES algorithm are true?(Choose two)
A. It uses a 64-bit key block size and its effective key length is 65 bits
B. It uses a 64-bits key block size and its effective key length is 56 bits
C. It is a stream cripher that can be used with any size input
D. It is more efficient in software implements than hardware implementations.
E. It is vulnerable to differential and linear cryptanalysis
F. It is resistant to square attacks
Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which Three statement about cisco IPS manager express are true? (Choose three)
A. It provides a customizable view of events statistics.
B. It Can provision policies based on risk rating.
C. It Can provision policies based on signatures.
D. It Can provision policies based on IP addresses and ports.
E. It uses vulnerability-focused signature to protect against zero-day attacks.
F. It supports up to 10 sensors.
Answer: ABF

QUESTION 10
In Cisco Wireless LAN Controller (WLC. which web policy enables failed Layer 2 authentication to fall back to WebAuth authentication with a user name and password?
A. On MAC Filter Failure
B. Pass through
C. Splash Page Web Redirect
D. Conditional Web Redirect
E. Authentication
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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The best and most updated CCNP Collaboration 300-075 training materials, high quality Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 training materials. Latest Cisco 300-075 dumps exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice.
However, devices outside cannot register.
Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D
300-075
Question No : 2
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?      300-075 dumps
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 4
Which solution is needed to enable presence and extension mobility to branch office phones during a WAN failure?
A. SRST without MGCP fallback
B. SRST with VoIP dial peers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. SRST with MGCP fallback
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Answer: C

Question No : 5
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C

Question No : 6
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco 300-075 dumps TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Answer: A,C,E

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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The best and most updated CCNP Collaboration 300-070 training materials, we also want you to be able to access them easily, 300-070 exam training material in PDF format, http://www.lead4pass.com/300-070.html high quality Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN.
To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? Cisco 300-070 dumps exam questions
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070
An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit, types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output.  300-070 dumps   Which two pieces of information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B. There are four channels.
C. The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D. The D channel is working correctly.
E. No active calls are established.
Answer: D,E

Question No : 3
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Answer: C,D

Question No : 4
Which two algorithms are valid to distribute calls in a route group? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. circular
C. top-down
D. bottom-up
E. round-robin
Answer: B,C

Question No : 5
Where do you configure the region for a group of devices?
A. Common device profile.
B. Device defaults.
C. Common device configuration.
D. Common phone profile.
E. Device pool.
Answer: E

Question No : 6
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: A

Question No : 7
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR
C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
Answer: A,E

Question No : 8
An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video?  300-070 dumps
A. F and AF-41
B. EF and CS6
C. EF and CS3
D. EF and AF21
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which two options are IOS conference bridge types in CUCM? (Choose two)
A. CiscoIOS Enhanced Conference Bridge
B. CiscoIOS Standard Conference Bridge
C. CiscoIOS Software Conference Bridge
D. CiscoIOS Hardware Conference Bridge
E. Cisco IOS Conference Bridge
Answer: A,E

Question No : 10
When implementing a global dial plan, which digit manipulation feature in CUCM does Cisco recommend for adding +1 to all outbound calls?
A. Called party transformation.
B. Calling party transformation.
C. Translation pattern.
D. External phone mask.
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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Best Cisco 300-320 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest practice questions and answers real IT exams. All the Cisco 300-320 exam dumps questions and answers are revised by the http://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 300-320 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

Question No : 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
Answer: D

Question No : 2
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to 300-320 dumps the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on the right.
300-320
Answer:
300-320
Explanation:
300-320
Question No : 4
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
Answer: C

Question No : 5
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6
Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
Answer: A

Question No : 7
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 8
When designing remote access to the 300-320 dumps Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 9
Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

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Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 training resources which are the best for clearing 210-060 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. Cisco 210-060 dumps exam questions CCNA Collaboration products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router 210-060 pdf configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text LabelB. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the 210-060 vce PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 6
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco 210-060 exam Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

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