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Vendor: Salesforce
Certifications: The Salesforce.com Certified Administrator
Exam Name: Administration Essentials for New Admins
Exam Code: ADM-201
Total Questions: 1013 Q&As
ADM-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? ADM-201 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation? ADM-201 dumps
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Java and Middleware
Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Total Questions: 216 Q&As
1Z0-803 dumps
QUESTION 1
A method doSomething () that has no exception handling code is modified to trail a method that throws a checked exception. Which two modifications, made independently, will allow the program to compile?
A. Catch the exception in the method doSomething().
B. Declare the exception to be thrown in the doSomething() method signature.
C. Cast the exception to a RunTimeException in the doSomething() method.
D. Catch the exception in the method that calls doSomething().
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps
Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Given a java source file:
1Z0-803 dumps
What changes will make this code compile? 1Z0-803 dumps (Select Two)
A. Adding the public modifier to the declaration of class x
B. Adding the protected modifier to the x() constructor
C. Changing the private modifier on the declaration of the one() method to protected
D. Removing the Y () constructor
E. Removing the private modifier from the two () method
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String h1 = “Bob”;
String h2 = new String (“Bob”);
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 = = h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two are valid declarations of a two-dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array2D;
B. int [2] [2] array2D;
C. int array2D [];
D. int [] array2D [];
E. int [] [] array2D [];
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which code fragment is illegal?
1Z0-803 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two may precede the word `class’ in a class declaration?
A. local
B. public
C. static
D. volatile
E. synchronized
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which three are bad practices? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception when iterating through an array to determine when all elements have been visited
B. Checking for Error and. If necessary, restarting the program to ensure that users are unaware problems
C. Checking for File Not Found Exception to inform a user that a filename entered is not valid
D. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception and ensuring that the program can recover if one occur
E. Checking for an IOException and ensuring that the program can recover if one occurs
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Given:
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What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Given:
1Z0-803 dumps
What three modifications, made independently, made to class greet, enable the code to compile and run?
A. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.keystroke stroke = new KeyStroke ( );
B. line 6 replaced with handy.*.KeyStroke = new KeyStroke ( );
C. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.KeyStroke Stroke = new handy.dandy.KeyStroke();
D. import handy.*; added before line 1
E. import handy.dandy.*; added after line 1
F. import handy.dandy,KeyStroke; added after line 1
G. import handy.dandy.KeyStroke.typeException(); added before line 1
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate false value for its declared type.
F. An exception occurs when the method attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Implementing NetScaler 10 for Networking and Traffic Optimization
Exam Code: 1Y0-A28
Total Questions: 123 Q&As
1Y0-A28 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?
A. VM Hosted applications
B. Streamed server OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?
A. Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B. Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C. Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D. Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. 1Y0-A28 dumps Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections. What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable ‘Direct connection to print servers’
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure ‘Username and Password’ in StoreFront.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the new virtual desktop environment. 1Y0-A28 dumps
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User’s Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CASP
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Exam Code: CAS-002
Total Questions: 532 Q&As
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 1
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks.
Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. CAS-002 dumps
Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 3
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed.
The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details.
Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. CAS-002 dumps During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 6
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working.
Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
A. PING
B. NESSUS
C. NSLOOKUP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 7
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to do the required level of encryption.
Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image.
Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: A, C

QUESTION: 9
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it.
Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. CAS-002 dumps To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization.
Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: C, E, F

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[100% Pass Guarantee] 2017 Latest Cisco 810-403 Dumps PDF Practice Files And Youtube Demo

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling?
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market? 810-403 dumps
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding technical requirements? 810-403 dumps
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? 810-403 pdf (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
According to Cisco and related to customers, 810-403 dumps which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. drop the frame
B. forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C. forward it out of all ports
D. store it until it learns the correct port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true about the operation of a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose three.)
A. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode.
B. A dedicated switch port is required for each full-duplex node.
C. Ethernet hub ports are preconfigured for full-duplex mode.
D. In a full-duplex environment, the host network card must check for the availability of the network media before transmitting.
E. The host network card and the switch port must be capable of operating in full-duplex mode.
Correct Answer: ABE
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 4          100-105 dumps
Which OSI layer header contains the address of a destination host that is on another network?
A. application
B. session
C. transport
D. network
E. data link
F. physical
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which protocol uses a connection-oriented service to deliver files between end systems?
A. TFTP
B. DNS
C. FTP
D. SNMP
E. RIP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.) 100-105 dumps
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
You administer Windows 10 Enter prise desktop computers that are members of an Active Directory domain. You want to create an archived copy of user profiles that are stored on the desktops. You create a standard domain user account to run a backup task.
You need to grant the backup task user account access to the user profiles.
What should you do?
A. Add the backup task account to the Remote Management Users group on a domain controller.
B. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on every computer.
C. Add the backup task account to the Backup Operators group on a domain controller.
D. Set the backup task account as NTFS owner on all the profiles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a standard power scheme for the sales team. You are replacing a laptop for a sale associate.
You import the power scheme onto the new laptop. 70-698 pdf
You need to App1y the power scheme.
What should you do?
A. Modify the power scheme under Power and Sleep settings.
B. Run the gpupdate /F command.
C. Run the powercfg /S command.
D. Modify the advanced power settings.
Correct Answer: C
70-698 dumps
QUESTION 3                   70-698 dumps
You manage Microsoft lntune for a company named Contoso. lntune client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You notice that there are 25 mandatory updates listed in the lntune administration console. You need to prevent users from receiving prompts to restart Windows following the installation of mandatory updates.
Which policy template should you use?
A. Microsoft lntune Agent Settings
B. Windows Configuration Policy
C. Microsoft lntune Center Settings
D. Windows Custom Policy(Windows 10 and Windows 10 Mobile)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You support desktop computers and tablets that run Windows 8 Enterprise. All of the computers are able to connect to your company network from the lnternet by using Direct Access. Your company wants to deploy a new App1ication to the tablets. The deployment solution must meet the following requirements:  70-698 pdf
The App1ication is able to access files stored on an internal solid-state drive (SSD) on the tablets.
The App1ication is isolated from other App1ications.
The App1ication uses the least amount of disk space on the tablet.
You need to deploy the new App1ication to the tablets.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the App1ication as an App1ication Virtualization (App-V) package. lnstall the App-V 4.6 client on the tablets.
B. Deploy the App1ication as a published App1ication on the Remote Desktop server. Create a Remote Desktop connection on the tablets.
C. lnstall the App1ication on a local drive on the tablets.
D. lnstall the App1ication in a Windows To Go workspace.
E. lnstall Hyper-V on tablets. lnstall the App1ication on a virtual machine.
F. Publish the App1ication to Windows Store.
G. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. Configure the tablets with dual boot.
H. lnstall the App1ication within a separate Windows 8 installation in a VHDX file. Configure tablets with dual boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso. com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 20l2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). You have a Microsoft lntune subscription that is synchronized to contoso. com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Synchronization Tool (DirSync.) You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft lntune subscription.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.
A. ln Microsoft lntune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
B. lnstall and configure Azure Active Directory Synchronization Services (AAD Sync.)
C. ln Microsoft lntune, configure an Exchange Connector.
D. ln Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft lntune Connector role.
E. ln Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft lntune subscription.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft lntune subscription.
You have three security groups named Security1, Security2 and Security3. Security1 is the parent group of Security2.
Security2 has l00 users. 70-698 dumps
You need to change the parent group of Security2 to be Security3.
What should you do first?
A. Edit the properties of Security1.
B. Edit the properties of Security2.
C. Delete security2.
D. Remove all users from Security2.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
Your company has started testi g App1ication Virtualization (App-V) App1ications on several laptops. You discover that the App-V App1ications are available to users even when the laptops are offline. You need to ensure that the App-V App1ications are available to users only when they are connected to the company network.
What should you do?
A. Change user permissions to the App-V App1ications.
B. Disable the Disconnected operation mode.
C. Configure mandatory profiles for laptop users.
D. Reset the App-V client File System cache.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso. com. The domain contains Windows 10 Enterprise client computers.
Your company has a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. Each user has a mailbox that is stored in Office 365 and a user account in the contoso. com domain. Each mailbox has two email addresses.
You need to add a third email address for each user.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the E-mail attribute for each user.
B. From Microsoft Azure Active Directory Module for Windows Power Shell, run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trust, add a UPN suffix for each user.
D. From the Office 365 portal, modify the Users settings of each user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your Windows 10 Enterprise work computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. You use your domain account to log o to the computer. You use your Microsoft account to log on to a home laptop. 70-698 pdf
You want to access Windows 10 Enterprise apps from your work computer by using your Microsoft account.
You need to ensure that you are able to access the Windows 10 Enterprise apps on your work computer by logging on only once.
What should you do?
A. Add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer.
B. Enable Remote Assistance on your home laptop.
C. Connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer.
D. lnstall Sky Drive for Windows on both your home laptop and your work computer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are an lT consultant for small and mid-sized business. 70-698 dumps
One of your clients wants to start using Virtual Smart Cards on its Windows 10 Enterprise laptops and tablets. Before implementing any changes, the client wants to ensure that the laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards. You need to verify that the client laptops and tablets support Virtual Smart Cards.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that each laptop and tablet has a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip of version l.2 or greater.
B. Ensure that Bitlocker Drive Encryption is enabled on a system drive of the laptops and tablets.
C. Ensure that each laptop and tablet can read a physical smart card.
D. EnsurethatthelaptopsandtabletsarerunningWindows 10Enterpriseedition.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION: 1
Which components are required in a minimum server setup for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A. Application Object Server (AOS) and Database Server
B. Application Object Server (AOS) and Report Server
C. Database Server and Analysis Server
D. Database Server and Web Server
Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what is the default TCP/IP port number used by the Application Object Server (AOS) function?
A. 1428
B. 1433
C. 2710
D. 2712
Answer: D

QUESTION: 3
In a multiple-server Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 environment, which network account can be used for the Dynamics AX Object Server Windows service? MB6-892 pdf
A. Domain name\domain account
B. NT AUTHORITY\Local Service account
C. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 user account
D. Microsoft SQL Server Database Owner account
Answer: A
MB6-892 dumps
QUESTION: 4             MB6-892 dumps
What type of account is required to integrate other applications with Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A. .NET Business Connector Proxy account
B. AOS Service account
C. Microsoft SQL Server Database Engine account
D. Workflow Execution account
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following components will run only on a 64-bit operating system? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012
B. Help Server
C. Synchronization Service
D. Web Services
Answer: A, B

QUESTION: 6
Which of the following is required to run Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 in an Active Directory environment? MB6-892 pdf
A. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed within the same domain.
B. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed on each user’s workstation.
C. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed in a Cloud configuration.
D. Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 components must be installed in a Windows Terminal Server configuration.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7
Which of the following web browsers meet the minimum requirements for client computers to access Enterprise Portal for Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? (Choose all that apply.) MB6-892 dumps
A. Mozilla Firefox 2
B. Mozilla Firefox 3.5
C. Windows Internet Explorer 7
D. Windows Internet Explorer 8
E. Windows Internet Explorer 9
Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION: 8
Which Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 tool should you use to troubleshoot performance issues?
A. Debugger
B. Development Workspace Tools
C. Management Utilities
D. Trace Parser
Answer: D

QUESTION: 9
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 MB6-892 pdf, to which types of internal organizations can the Centralized Payments hierarchy purpose be assigned?
A. all party entities
B. only legal entities
C. only operating units
D. only teams
Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following operating units is used for financial reporting and is based on industries or product lines that the organization serves independently of legal entities? MB6-892 dumps
A. business unit
B. cost center
C. department
D. value stream
Answer: A

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