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[2020.6] Latest Adobe AD0-E301 Exam Practice Questions and AD0-E301 Exam Dumps

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Where can I get the latest Adobe AD0-E301 exam dumps and online practice questions? Geturnet updates Adobe Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “Campaign Standard Developer” AD0-E301 exam.
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Latest Updates Adobe AD0-E301 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

During a business process, which activity would trigger an event transactional message?
A. Create an event API and publish it.
B. An external event matching the internal RT event name hits the Message Center Execution.
C. Personalize the message, test it, and publish it.
D. After a Workflow completes, the transactional message service is triggered.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

What is the Adobe-recommended method to authenticate to the Adobe SFTP servers?
A. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using use ma me/password authentication
B. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using OpenSSH key-based authentication
C. Authentication from a blacklisted IP using SSH2 key-based authentication
D. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using SSH1 key-based authentication

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

What are the two possible ways of sharing reports? Choose two.
A. Sending reports to Campaign users as a one-time email
B. Sending Email proofs to Campaign users
C. Sending reports to Campaign users on a recurring basis
D. Sending reports to any valid email address Exporting and sharing PDF reports

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4

In a multi-lingual email delivery template with three variants specified, how is the profile\’s language variant
determined?
A. By the profile\’s geographic location
B. By the segment where the profile belongs
C. By the default variant type in the content editor and the profile\’s preferred language
D. By the profile\’s preferred language than by the default variant type in the content editor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

What are the two steps involved in creating a custom delivery template? Choose two.
A. Create a template using the Create button
B. Modify an out-of-the-box template
C. Reference it in the delivery
D. Configure the template
E. Duplicate an existing template

Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6

One of the feed files contains a column \’Optln flag\’ which has string values “Yes”, “No” and blank. But the destination
column in the custom resource is defined as a Boolean.
How do we insert the data into this specific column?
A. Use value remapping to convert String to Boolean
B. Have three different branches in the workflow so you can use hard-coded values
C. Use an expression to convert String to Boolean
D. Use the function to Boolean to convert the value

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

Your client wants an automatic export of new logs every day. What is the correct sequence to achieve this?
A. Incremental Query, Extract file, Transfer file
B. Scheduler, Incremental Query, Transfer file. Extract file
C. Incremental Query, Transfer file. Extract file
D. Scheduler, Incremental Query, Extract file. Transfer file

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which three components does an administrator use to restrict access? Choose three.
A. Security groups
B. Roles
C. Organizational units
D. Licenses
E. Sys filters
F. Named rights

Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9

How would you solve the following error in the error log while importing a package?
1.
18/06/2018 10:13:36 The build of the (10481)package is more recent than the build of the (10477) instance. Please
update your instance before importing this package.
2.
18/06/2018 10:13:36 At least one warning was raised during the analysis. The package was not imported.
3.
18/06/2018 10:13:36 SOP-330011 Error while executing the method \’InstallPackage\’ of service \’xtk:builder\’.
A. Select the option “Allow import from a newer build”.
B. Adapt the “install package” method in the “to builder” schema.
C. Disable warnings for package imports under Administration > Deployment.
D. Contact Adobe and request an update of the source instance to a newer version.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

What three steps are needed to set up the double opt-in process? Choose three.
A. Create a new recurring delivery.
B. Set blacklist field of the Profile to false on double opt-in confirmation.
C. Create a new transactional message.
D. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Blacklist template or the Subscription template.
E. Set blacklist field of the Profile to true on the double opt-in confirmation.
F. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Profile acquisition template or the Subscription template

Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 11

What does the package functionality allow you to do?
A. It allows you to export only business data from one instance to another.
B. It allows you to import and export business data and configuration data from one instance to another.
C. It allows you to export only configuration data from one instance to another.
D. It allows you to create a full back-up of the database without database access.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

A. Receiver port
B. Receiver set
C. Receiver account and password
D. Encryption type
E. Activation mode

Correct Answer: BC

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[2020.6] Latest Salesforce CRT-450 Exam Practice Questions and CRT-450 Exam Dumps

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Where can I get the latest Salesforce CRT-450 exam dumps and online practice questions? Geturnet updates Salesforce Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “Certification Preparation for Platform Developer I” CRT-450 exam. You can find the free CRT-450 pdf, CRT-450 practice question online test, and our recommended https://www.lead4pass.com/crt-450.html brand site in Geturnet! Easy access to CRT-450 exam dumps!

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Certification Preparation for Platform Developer I (CRT450): https://trailhead.salesforce.com/en/academy/classes/crt450-certification-preparation-for-platform-developer-i/

When you complete this course, you will be able to:

  • Describe the structure of the exam and the exam’s objectives.
  • List the most heavily weighted exam objectives.
  • Describe key features of the Salesforce programming languages, including Apex, SOQL, SOSL, and Visualforce.
  • Explain important Salesforce concepts, such as the testing framework, governor limits, and the same order of execution.
  • Explain the ALM of a Salesforce development project.

Latest Updates Salesforce CRT-450 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

What is the capability of a StandardSetController?Choose 2 answers
A. It allows pages to perform mass updates of records
B. It allows pages to perform pagination with large record sets
C. It enforces field-level security when reading large record sets
D. It extends the functionality of a standard or custom controller

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2

From which two locations can a developer determine the overall code coverage for a sandbox? Choose two answers
A. The Apex classes setup page
B. The Test Suite Run panel the Developer Console
C. The Test Tab of the Developer Console
D. The Apex Test Execution page

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3

Which component is available to deploy using Metadata API? Choose 2 answers
A. Case Layout
B. Account Layout
C. Case Feed Layout
D. ConsoleLayout

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

A platform developer needs to write an apex method that will only perform an action if a record is assigned to a specific
record type. Which two options allow the developer to dynamically determine the ID of the required record type by its
name? Choose 2 answers
A. Use the getrecordtypeinfosbydevelopername() method in the describesobjectresult class
B. Make an outbound web services call to the SOAP API
C. Execute a SOQL query on the recordtype object
D. Hardcore the ID as a constant in an apex class

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5

A developer creates a method in an Apex class and needs to ensure that errors are handled properly. What would the
developer use? (There are three correct answers.)
A. ApexPages.addErrorMessage()
B. A custom exception
C. .addError()
D. Database.handleException()
E. A try/catch construct

Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 6

A developer has the controller class below.

geturnet crt-450 q6

Which code block will run successfully in an execute anonymous window?
A. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop !=null);
B. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==0);
C. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==null);
D. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==1);

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

What is the result of the following code block?
Integer x = 1;Integer Y = 0;While(x
A. An error occurs
B. Y = 9
C. Y = 10
D. X = 0

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

What should a developer work in a sandbox use to exercise a new test Class before the developer deploys that test
production?Choose 2 answers
A. The REST API and ApexTestRun method
B. The Apex Test Execution page in Salesforce Setup.
C. The Test menu in the Developer Console.
D. The Run Tests page in Salesforce Setup.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9

A developer wants to list all of the Tasks for each Account on the Account detail page. When a task is created for a
Contact, what does the developer need to do to display the Task on the related Account record?
A. Nothing. The task is automatically displayed on the Account page.
B. Nothing. The Task cannot be related to an Account and a Contact.
C. Create a Workflow rule to relate the Task to the Contact\’s Account.
D. Create an Account formula field that displays the Task information.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which two Apex data types can be used to reference a Salesforce record ID dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. ENUM
B. sObject
C. External ID
D. String

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11

What actions types should be configured to display a custom success message?
A. Update a record.
B. Post a feed item.
C. Delete a record.
D. Close a case.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

An Account trigger updates all related Contacts and Cases each time an Account is saved using the following two DML
statements:
update allContacts; update allCases;
What is the result if the Case update exceeds the governor limit for maximum number of DML records?
A. The Account save succeeds, Contacts are updated, but Cases are not.
B. The Account save fails and no Contacts or Cases are updated
C. The Account save is retried using a smaller trigger batch size.
D. The Account save succeeds and no Contacts or Cases are updated

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which tool allows a developer to send requests to the Salesforce REST APIs and view the responses?
A. REST resource path URL
B. Workbench REST Explorer
C. Developer Console REST tab
D. Force.com IDE REST Explorer tab

Correct Answer: B

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How do I get free VMware 2V0-731 dumps? PDF dumps and VCE dumps?

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What is the best way to pass the VMware VCP7-CMA 2V0-731 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass VMware expert.) You can get free VMware 2V0-731 exam practice test questions here.
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VCP7-CMA Exam – MyLearn – VMware:https://mylearn.vmware.com/mgrReg/plan.cfm?plan=96193

This exam tests your skills and abilities installing, configuring and administering a VMware vRealize® environment.

  • Section 1: Create and Modify vRealize Automation Blueprints
  • Section 2: Configure and Manage Tenants and Business Groups
  • Section 3: Install and Configure vRealize Automation and Related Components
  • Section 4: Configure and Manage the vRealize Automation Catalog
  • Section 5: Configure and Administer Fabric Groups and Endpoints
  • Section 6: Extend a vRealize Automation Implementation

Latest updates VMware 2V0-731 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
When creating an XaaS blueprint that includes the workflow to create a custom vSphere virtual machine, which field
does an administrator add to present descriptive text to the consumer of the resource?
A. The Integer field element from the New fields list
B. The Text field element from the New fields list
C. The Text element from the Form list
D. The Label header element from the Form list
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An approval policy can be applied to which two options? (Choose two.)
A. A catalog service
B. A catalog user
C. An event
D. An action
Correct Answer: AD
Reference https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vrealize.automation.doc%2FGUID-4463B302-4365-4374-8954-7B582D34D41A.html

QUESTION 3
Which three options are valid customizable state change workflows? (Choose three.)
A. WFStubMachineDisposed
B. WFStubBuildingMachine
C. WFStubMachineProvisioned
D. WFStubMachineUnprovisioned
E. WFStubUnprovisionMachine
Correct Answer: BCE
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.1/com.vmware.vra.extensibility.doc/GUID-81EF73B2-002B-45DE-B6B3-85E7D5C9A934.html

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QUESTION 4
A vRealize Automation Tenant Administrator has identified a tenant virtual machine with low CPU and memory
utilization. The owner has been given 5 days to respond to the reclamation request. The new virtual machine lease is
set to 1 day and the blueprint used to build the virtual machine has an archive period of 7 days.
How many days will elapse before the virtual machine is destroyed and the user fails to respond?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 13
D. 6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
How does a reservation with a priority of 1 impact the environment?
A. The business group assigned this reservation will have preferred access to the compute resources over other business groups with a priority greater than 1.
B. If a business group has multiple reservations, other reservations will be chosen over this reservation for business groups with a priority greater than 1.
C. The business group assigned this reservation will have less than preferred access to the compute resources compared to other business groups with a priority greater than 1.
D. If a business group has multiple reservations, this reservation will be chosen over all other reservations for business groups with a priority greater than 1.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: The priority field is used if you are going to create multiple reservations for the same reservation policy. For
example, if we had two, the second one we create would have a priority of 2. When a user tries to provision a virtual
machine from the catalog it will use the lowest priority unless it is not available any longer then move to alternate
resources Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-62/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vra.iaas.virtual.doc%2FGUID-3EEAAFCC-2080-4925-84E7-CAFF3D9FF3F3.html

QUESTION 6
Which two areas of the vRealize Automation User Interface could a Fabric Administrator examine to determine current
consumption of computing and storage resources? (Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure > Compute Resources
B. Infrastructure > Reservation Policies
C. Home
D. Administration > Business Groups
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three options are valid buttons available under the Schema tab in the vRealize Orchestrator workflow editor?
(Choose three.)
A. Edit
B. Run
C. Delete
D. Validate
E. Debug
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 8
Which two components are delivered by a load-balanced vRealize Automation virtual appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Proxy Agent
B. DEM Worker
C. Identity Manager
D. vRealize Orchestrator
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vrealize-automation-70-load-balancing.pdf

QUESTION 9
An approval policy has been created for use with a catalog item named CentOSWeb. The item is assigned to the
Linux servers service which is included in the current entitlement. The approval policy should NOT be triggered for any
of the other current or future items in the Linux servers service.
Which three steps would assign the approval policy to the CentOSWeb item and produce the minimum number of entitlements? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new entitlement.
B. Confirm that the entitlement is active.
C. Add the CentOSWeb item to the entitlement under Entitled Items.
D. Add the approval policy to the CentOSWeb item.
E. Add the LinuxServers service under Entitled Services.
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vrealize.automation.doc%2FGUID-52E0EB4A-6CBE-470C-A480-4939499D3E37.html

QUESTION 10
The vRealize Orchestrator Server Configuration for XaaS activity needs to be pointed to an external server for all current and future tenants. The default server configuration is currently in use. Which two options accomplish this task?
(Choose two.)
A. Log into the default tenant as a system administrator.
B. Configure the external vRO connection under the Infrastructure tab.
C. Log into the default tenant as a tenant administrator.
D. Configure the external vRO connection under the Administration tab.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vrealize.automation.doc%2FGUID-CA258813-2F3D-4DB2-9A2A-BC2A9FC633F5.html

QUESTION 11
Which two areas of the vRealize Automation UI could a Fabric Administrator look to determine how many virtual
machines have been provisioned by a specific user along with their aggregate allocated memory and storage totals?
(Choose two.)
A. Infrastructure > Managed Machines
B. Home
C. Infrastructure > Reservations
D. Infrastructure > Compute Resources
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
A Business Group Manager, with no additional entitlements, wants to find his business group\’s virtual machines along
with allocated storage and memory totals to help determine the remaining reserve capacity. In which two areas of the
vRealize Automation UI could this information be found? (Choose two.)
A. Home
B. Administration > Business Groups
C. Business Management
D. Infrastructure > Business Groups
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.2/vrealize-automation-72-management.pdf

QUESTION 13
An administrator requires a range of static IP addresses that can be used for provisioning machines on an existing
network.
What action needs to be completed?
A. Create a NAT network profile.
B. Create a routed network profile.
C. Create an external network profile.
D. Create a network reservation policy.
Correct Answer: C
Reference https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.3/com.vmware.vra.prepare.use.doc/GUID-B6E703B8-6F46-4BE0-998D-9B6B7E402129.html

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Exam AZ-400: Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-400

Candidates for this exam are DevOps professionals who combine people, processes, and technologies to continuously deliver valuable products and services that meet end-user needs and business objectives. DevOps professionals streamline delivery by optimizing practices, improving communications and collaboration, and creating automation. They design and implement strategies for application code and infrastructure that allow for continuous integration, testing, delivery, monitoring, and feedback.

Candidates must be proficient with Agile practices. They must be familiar with both Azure administration and Azure development and experts in at least one of these areas. Azure DevOps professionals must be able to design and implement DevOps practices for version control, compliance, infrastructure as code, configuration management, build, release, and testing by using Azure technologies.

Latest updates Microsoft az-400 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a multi-tier application that has an Azure Web Apps front end and an Azure SQL Database back end.
You need to recommend a solution to capture and store telemetry data. The solution must meet the following
requirements:
Support using ad-hoc queries to identify baselines.
Trigger alerts when metrics in the baseline are exceeded. Store application and database metrics in a central location.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Event Hubs
B. Azure SQL Database Intelligent Insights
C. Azure Application Insights
D. Azure Log Analytics
Correct Answer: D
Azure Platform as a Service (PaaS) resources, like Azure SQL and Web Sites (Web Apps), can emit performance
metrics data natively to Log Analytics.
The Premium plan will retain up to 12 months of data, giving you an excellent baseline ability.
There are two options available in the Azure portal for analyzing data stored in Log analytics and for creating queries for ad hoc analysis.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Intelligent Insights analyzes database performance by comparing the database workload from the last hour with the past seven-day baseline workload. However, we need to handle application metrics as well. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/collect-azurepass-posh

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP You need to recommend project metrics for dashboards in Azure DevOps. Which chart widgets should you recommend for each metric? To answer, drag the appropriate chart widgets to the correct metrics. Each chart widget may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q2-1

Box 1: Lead time
Lead time measures the total time elapsed from the creation of work items to their completion.
Box 2: Cycle time
Cycle time measures the time it takes for your team to complete work items once they begin actively working on them.
Box 3: Burndown
Burndown charts focus on remaining work within a specific time period.
Incorrect Answers:
Velocity provides a useful metric for these activities:
Support sprint planning
Forecast future sprints and the backlog items that can be completed
A guide for determining how well the team estimates and meets their planned commitments
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/report/dashboards/velocity-guidance?view=vsts
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/report/dashboards/cycle-time-and-lead-time?view=vsts
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/report/dashboards/configure-burndown-burnup-widgets?view=vsts

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You integrate a cloud-hosted Jenkins server and a new Azure DevOps deployment.
You need Azure DevOps to send a notification to Jenkins when a developer commits changes to a branch in Azure
Repos.
Solution: You create an email subscription to an Azure DevOps notification.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You can create a service hook for Azure DevOps Services and TFS with Jenkins.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/service-hooks/services/jenkins

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) implementation that is RBAC-enabled.
You plan to use Azure Container Instances as a hosted development environment to run containers in the AKS
implementation.
You need to configure Azure Container Instances as a hosted environment for running the containers in AKS.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q2

Step 1: Create a YAML file.
If your AKS cluster is RBAC-enabled, you must create a service account and role binding for use with Tiller. To create a
service account and role binding, create a file named RBAC-virtual-kubelet.YAML
Step 2: Run kubectl apply.
Apply the service account and binding with kubectl apply and specify your RBAC-virtual-kubelet.YAML file.
Step 3: Run helm init.
Configure Helm to use the tiller service account:
helm init –service-account tiller
You can now continue to install the Virtual Kubelet into your AKS cluster. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/virtual-kubelet

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Your company wants to use Azure Application Insights to understand how user behaviors affect an application.
Which application Insights tool should you use to analyze each behavior? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct behaviors. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q5-1

Box 1: User Flows
The User Flows tool visualizes how users navigate between the pages and features of your site. It\’s great for
answering questions like:
How do users navigate away from a page on your site?
What do users click on a page on your site?
Where are the places that users churn most from your site?
Are there places where users repeat the same action over and over?
Box 2: Users
Box 3: Impact
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/usage-flows

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
How should you complete the code to initialize App Center in the mobile application? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q6-1

Scenario: Visual Studio App Center must be used to centralize the reporting of mobile application crashes and device types in use.
In order to use App Center, you need to opt into the service(s) that you want to use, meaning by default no services are started and you will have to explicitly call each of them when starting the SDK.
Insert the following line to start the SDK in your app\’s AppDelegate class in the didFinishLaunchingWithOptions
method.
MSAppCenter.start(“{Your App Secret}”, withServices: [MSAnalytics.self, MSCrashes.self]) References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/appcenter/sdk/getting-started/ios

QUESTION 7
During a code review, you discover many quality issues. Many modules contain unused variables and empty catch
blocks.
You need to recommend a solution to improve the quality of the code.
What should you recommend?
A. In a Grunt build task, select Enabled from Control Options.
B. In a Maven build task, select Run PMD.
C. In an Xcode build task, select Use pretty from Advanced.
D. In a Gradle build task, select Run Checkstyle.
Correct Answer: B
PMD is a source code analyzer. It finds common programming flaws like unused variables, empty catch blocks,
unnecessary object creation, and so forth. There is an Apache Maven PMD Plugin that allows you to automatically run the PMD code analysis tool on your project\’s source code and generate a site report with its results.
Incorrect Answers:
C: pretty is a fast and flexible formatter for xcodebuild. References: https://pmd.github.io/

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a project in Azure DevOps.
You plan to create a build pipeline that will deploy resources by using Azure Resource Manager templates. The templates will reference secrets stored in the Azure Key Vault.
You need to ensure that you can dynamically generate the resource ID of the key vault during template deployment.
What should you include in the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q8-1

Box 1: “Microsoft.Resources/deployments”
Reference a secret with a dynamic ID. You need to reference a key vault secret that varies based on the current deployment.
Example:
“resources”: [
{
“apiVersion”: “2018-05-01”,
“name”: “dynamicSecret”,
“type”: “Microsoft.Resources/deployments”,
“properties”: {
“mode”: “Incremental”,
“templateLink”: {
Box 2: “templateLink”
In your parent template, you add the linked template and pass in a parameter that contains the dynamically generated
resource ID.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-keyvault-parameter

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You need to implement the code flow strategy for Project2 in Azure DevOps.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q9-1

Step 1: Create a repository
A Git repository, or repo, is a folder that you\’ve told Git to help you track file changes in. You can have any number of reports on your computer, each stored in their own folder.
Step 2: Create a branch
Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\’s code quality and change management standards.
Step 3: Add a build validation policy
When a build validation policy is enabled, a new build is queued when a new pull request is created or when changes are pushed to an existing pull request targeting this branch. The build policy then evaluates the results of the build to determine whether the pull request can be completed.
Scenario:
Implement a code flow strategy for Project2 that will:
Enable Team2 to submit pull requests for Project2.
Enable Team2 to work independently on changes to a copy of Project2.
Ensure that any intermediary changes performed by Team2 on a copy of Project2 will be subject to the same restrictions as the ones defined in the building policy of Project2.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/manage-your-branches

QUESTION 10
Your company creates a web application.
You need to recommend a solution that automatically sends to Microsoft Teams a daily summary of the exceptions that occur in the application.
Which two Azure services should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Logic Apps
B. Azure Pipelines
C. Microsoft Visual Studio App Center
D. Azure DevOps Project
E. Azure Application Insights
Correct Answer: AE
E: Exceptions in your live web app are reported by Application Insights.
Note: Periodical reports help keep a team informed on how their business-critical services are doing. Developers,
DevOps/SRE teams and their managers can be productive with automated reports reliably delivering insights without requiring everyone to sign in the portal. Such reports can also help identify gradual increases in latencies, load or failure rates that may not trigger any alert rules.
A: You can programmatically query Application Insights data to generate custom reports on a schedule. The following
options can help you get started quickly: Automate reports with Microsoft Flow Automate reports with Logic Apps
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/asp-net-exceptions
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/automate-custom-reports

QUESTION 11
Your company develops a client banking application that processes a large volume of data;
Code quality is an ongoing issue for the company. Recently, the code quality has deteriorated because of an increase in
time pressure on the development team.
You need to implement static code analysis.
During which phase should you use static code analysis?
A. build
B. production release
C. staging
D. integration testing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Your company plans to deploy an application to the following endpoints:


  1. Ten virtual machines hosted in Azure

  2. Ten virtual machines hosted in an on-premises data center environment
    All the virtual machines have the Azure Pipelines agent.
    You need to implement a release strategy for deploying the application to the endpoints.
    What should you recommend using to deploy the application to the endpoints? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct endpoints. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need
    to drag
    the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
    Select and Place:
lead4pass az-400 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-400 exam question q12-1

Box 1: A deployment group
When authoring an Azure Pipelines or TFS Release pipeline, you can specify the deployment targets for a job using a
deployment group.
If the target machines are Azure VMs, you can quickly and easily prepare them by installing the Azure Pipelines Agent
Azure VM extension on each of the VMs, or by using the Azure Resource Group Deployment task in your release pipeline to create a deployment group dynamically.
Box 2: A deployment group
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/deployment-groups

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You integrate a cloud-hosted Jenkins server and a new Azure DevOps deployment.
You need Azure DevOps to send a notification to Jenkins when a developer commits changes to a branch in Azure
Repos.
Solution: You create a service hook subscription that uses the code pushed event.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can create a service hook for Azure DevOps Services and TFS with Jenkins.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/service-hooks/services/jenkins

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New Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions. MB2-715 dumps
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?
A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator for a company that is preparing for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
Your users use both Windows and Mac laptops. Management wants users to be able to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Out.ook.
What is a requirement for the Office for Mac users?
A. They must use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
B. They must have the Opera Web Browser installed.
C. They must have Google Chrome installed.
D. They must have the latest Firefox installed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are a system administrator for an organization that relies solely on an ISV solution for Microsoft Dynamics 365. MB2-715 dumps
Your instances are scheduled to be updated.
What are two approaches for this update? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Test the update in your sandbox environments prior to updating production.
B. Contact your ISV provider, and follow their recommendation for this update.
C. Update production. With an ISV solution, there is no need to go through a test process.
D. Import the updated version of the ISV solution prior to the update of your instance.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Microsoft Dynamics 36b and Skype for Business are implemented at your company.
You recently became system administrator, and you notice that the Skype for Business presence is not displaying in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to resolve this issue?
A. Enable country/region code prefixing.
B. Select the provider for Click-to-Call.
C. Change user settings for the security roles.
D. Enable presence for the system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Your organization has decided to take advantage of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook App.
What should you do to ensure the app is automatically added to the Outlook account of all eligible users?
A. Use Group Policy in Active Directory and automatically install the app for the eligible users.
B. In Microsoft Dynamics 365 Settings > Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, add the app to all eligible users.
C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365f go to App Source, search for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, and install it from App Source.
D. Assign all eligible users proper privileges to use the app in Microsoft Dynamics 365 and instruct them where to download and install the app.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Total Questions: 216 Q&As
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QUESTION 1
A method doSomething () that has no exception handling code is modified to trail a method that throws a checked exception. Which two modifications, made independently, will allow the program to compile?
A. Catch the exception in the method doSomething().
B. Declare the exception to be thrown in the doSomething() method signature.
C. Cast the exception to a RunTimeException in the doSomething() method.
D. Catch the exception in the method that calls doSomething().
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Given:
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Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Given a java source file:
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What changes will make this code compile? 1Z0-803 dumps (Select Two)
A. Adding the public modifier to the declaration of class x
B. Adding the protected modifier to the x() constructor
C. Changing the private modifier on the declaration of the one() method to protected
D. Removing the Y () constructor
E. Removing the private modifier from the two () method
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String h1 = “Bob”;
String h2 = new String (“Bob”);
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 = = h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two are valid declarations of a two-dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array2D;
B. int [2] [2] array2D;
C. int array2D [];
D. int [] array2D [];
E. int [] [] array2D [];
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which code fragment is illegal?
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B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two may precede the word `class’ in a class declaration?
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B. public
C. static
D. volatile
E. synchronized
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which three are bad practices? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception when iterating through an array to determine when all elements have been visited
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D. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception and ensuring that the program can recover if one occur
E. Checking for an IOException and ensuring that the program can recover if one occurs
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Given:
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What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Given:
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What three modifications, made independently, made to class greet, enable the code to compile and run?
A. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.keystroke stroke = new KeyStroke ( );
B. line 6 replaced with handy.*.KeyStroke = new KeyStroke ( );
C. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.KeyStroke Stroke = new handy.dandy.KeyStroke();
D. import handy.*; added before line 1
E. import handy.dandy.*; added after line 1
F. import handy.dandy,KeyStroke; added after line 1
G. import handy.dandy.KeyStroke.typeException(); added before line 1
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 1Z0-803 dumps
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B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 12
A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate false value for its declared type.
F. An exception occurs when the method attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest updates CompTIA CV0-002 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator configures a new web server for the site https://companyname.com. The administrator installs a
wildcard SSL certificate for *.companyname.com. When users attempt to access the site, a certificate error is received.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
A. Certificate misconfigured
B. Certificate expired
C. Certificate revoked
D. Certificate not signed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which of the following will use ICMP to successively check hops between the source and destination?
A. traceroute
B. netstat
C. dig
D. route
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A system administrator has been monitoring cloud infrastructure usage over a period of time. The administrator notices
that several hosts are consistently running close to capacity during work hours. To balance the workload across more
hosts the administrator performs a virtual resource migration. Which of the following terms BEST describes the reason
the administrator performed this action?
A. Mobility
B. Utilization
C. Availability
D. Migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following may be used to increase data confidentiality when encryption is not an option?
A. LUN masking
B. Zoning
C. Hashing
D. Obfuscation
Correct Answer: D
“To prevent hackers from disassembling data, one of the processes used is obfuscation, which is data scrambling. Data
is purposely scrambled, which renders it unreadable until the obfuscation process is reversed.”

QUESTION 5
Which of the following will be the BEST option for an administrator to bring VMs online at a warm site after a natural
disaster has occurred at the primary site?
A. Kick off a full backup
B. Request offsite backup tapes
C. Confirm enterprise tape library is functional
D. Verify replication is enabled
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following does the administrator use to consolidate all the VMs into a single IP while allowing access to the
Internet?
A. DNS
B. VLAN
C. NAT
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The system administrator created a file sharing service to the cloud for easier access for those working remotely. Which
of the following tests should be performed to determine if services can be compromised?
A. Test storage
B. Test latency
C. Vulnerability assessment
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A cloud solution provider offers services solely to the healthcare industry which meets specific security and government
regulations. This is an example of which of the following cloud types?
A. Public
B. Hybrid
C. Private
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An administrator needs to monitor server applications in the company\\’s data center. Which of the following tools would
the administrator need to accomplish this objective?
A. SMS
B. SMTP
C. IPMI
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A cloud administrator is integrating account logins with Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter for marketing and to increase
market presence using social media platforms. Given this scenario, which of the following components are needed to
match these requirements? (Select TWO).
A. SOAP
B. SAML assertion
C. Security token
D. Identity provider
E. Session state
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a hardening technique that an administrator would perform when creating a standard VM
template that would be used for deploying servers in a production environment?
A. Create a standard user account
B. Disable unneeded services
C. Establish a performance baseline
D. Follow change management process
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator
run to determine where the connection failure occurs?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. telnet
D. netstat
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of
the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?lead4pass cv0-002 exam question q13

A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity.
B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity.
C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity.
D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-301 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive
workload that performs financial risk modelling.
You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch.
You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Basic A-series virtual machines
B. low-priority virtual machines
C. burstable virtual machines
D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview

QUESTION 2
You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage.
You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs.
You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Data Migration Assistant
D. AzCopy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Use SQLServer transactional replication.
C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have .NeT web service named service1 that has the following requirements.
Must read and write to the local file system.
Must write to the Windows Application event log. You need to recommend a solution to host Service1 in Azure . The
solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize maintenance overhead.
Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Azure web app
B. Azure function
C. an App service Environment
D. an Azure virtual machine scale set
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web
application. The web application will send data daily.
You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the following requirements:
Sends email notification when data is received from IoT devices.
Minimizes compute cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action.
B. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding.
C. Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action.
D. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on-premises physical server workloads. Each server workload is
independent of the other. The workloads are stateless.
You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on-premises data center fails, the workloads are
available in Azure as quickly as possible.
Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation?
A. Latest
B. Latest app-consistent
C. Latest multi-VM processed
D. Latest processed
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-failover

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Contoso DB account named Account1 that has one write region and four read regions.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that, by default, any reads containers in Account1 will never see out
writes. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Configure Account1 to use the Strong consistency level.
B. Create all the containers m Account1 as fixed.
C. Create all the containers m Account1 as unlimited.
D. Configure Account 1 to use the Consistent Prefix consistency level
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Project1. Only a group named Project1admins is assigned roles in the Project1
subscription. The Project1 subscription contains all the resources for an application named Application1.
Your company is developing a new application named Application2. The members of the Application2 development
team belong to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named App2Dev.
You identify the following requirements for Application2:
The members of App2Dev must be prevented from changing the role assignments in Azure.
The members of App2Dev must be able to create new Azure resources required by Application2.
All the required role assignments for Application2 will be performed by the members of Project1admins.
You need to recommend a solution for the role assignments of Application2.
Solution: In Project1, create a resource group named Application2RG. Assign Project1admins the Owner role for
Application2RG. Assign App2Dev the Contributor role for Application2RG.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises
data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016.
The
database server will not move to Azure.
A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions.
The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network
named VNET1.
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in a Premium App Service plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution for implementing the back-end tier of the payment processing system in Azure.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Azure SQL Database managed instance
B. a SQL Server database on an Azure virtual machine
C. an Azure SQL Database single database
D. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?
A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
B. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
C. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects.
D. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.
Correct Answer: B
Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a
link failure between Azure and the onpremises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on-
premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain
controllers on-premises)

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Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG

QUESTION 3
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal bootup sequence? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: dmesg /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 5
What file contains kernel level logging information such as output from a network driver module when it is loaded? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /VAR/LOG/KERN.LOG,/VAR/LOG/MESSAGES,KERN.LOG,MESSAGES

QUESTION 6
What file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/CMDLINE,CMDLINE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What command is used to display a file in octal format? LX0-101 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/HEXDUMP,/USR/BIN/OD,HEXDUMP,OD

QUESTION 9
To change the priority of a running process, an administrator should use the command. (Specify command only with no options.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/RENICE,RENICE

QUESTION 10
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What is the name of the main configuration file for GRUB? (Please specify the file name with no path information).
Correct Answer: GRUB.CFG,GRUB.CONF,MENU.LST

QUESTION 12
An administrator wants the default permissions for their files to be -rw-r—–. How must the administrator set umask?
A. 037
B. 640
C. 038
D. 027
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator is writing text in vi. Now the administrator wants to save their changes and exit. Which of the following sequence of inputs will accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will print a list of usernames (first column) and their corresponding user id (uid, third column) from /etc/passwd?
A. cut -d: -f1,3 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,3 /etc/passwd
C. tac 1-3 /etc/passwd
D. fmt -u /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
The /etc/ file lists currently mounted devices.
Correct Answer: MTAB

QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP

QUESTION 20
The priority of any process can range from -20 to . LX0-101 dumps (Provide only the numerical value).
Correct Answer: +19,19

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true when hard-linked files are present?
A. The output of stat will report “hard” instead of “regular file”
B. The hard-linked files may not be empty
C. Both files will share the same inode
D. Issuing a long directory listing with ls -l will indicate the link with “->”
E. The file permissions will be prefixed by an “h”, eg. hrwxr-x-r-x
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
/dev/sda3 will create a swap area on the device /dev/sda3.
Correct Answer: /SBIN/MKSWAP,MKSWAP

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
C. /bin/grep #$ foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Which of the following does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts the floppy disk for all users.
B. It shows all mounted file systems.
C. It opens /etc/fstab to edit.
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will show the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf –
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf –
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
An administrator suspects that a new Ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should the administrator check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drivers? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/INTERRUPTS,INTERRUPTS

QUESTION 30
Which of the following commands can be used to instruct the init process to switch runlevels? (Select TWO).
A. telinit
B. initctl
C. init
D. reinit
E. runlevel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 31
All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh EXCEPT:
A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
B. . /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 32
An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. LX0-101 dumps The administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which of the following commands is run LAST during boot on a system with quotas enabled?
A. fsck
B. mount
C. quotacheck
D. quotaon
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
An administrator has read/write permissions on an ordinary file foo. The administrator has just run ln foo bar. Which of the following would occur if the administrator ran rm foo?
A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. The administrator would be asked whether bar should be removed.
Correct Answer: B

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