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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What can prevent you from adding an interface to a pre-existing port-channel on a CISCO Nexus N7K device?
A. The port-channel is In LACP passive mode
B. The interface already assigned to a different port-channel,
C. The interface has been allocated to a different VOC
D. no shutdown was issued on the interface.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. What is the
problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which tools can assist in the troubleshooting of FC-0 issues? (Choose three.)
A. FC analyzer
B. SPAN
C. Device Manager
D. show interface fc1/1 optical-power-budget
E. PAA
F. a portable protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: ACF

 

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lead4pass 300-180 exam question q4-3

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lead4pass 300-180 exam question q5-3

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lead4pass 300-180 exam question q5-4

 

QUESTION 6
You have a Cisco UCS Central cluster. An I/O error is detected in the shared storage. What is a possible cause of the
issue?
A. One of the Cisco UCS Central nodes is powered off.
B. The wrong path selection policy is configured in VMware.
C. The shared storage LUN was shared by a virtual machine other than the Cisco UCS Central cluster nodes.
D. The Cisco UCS domain is not registered in Cisco UCS Central.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
A customer has Server1 working properly, configured to boot over SAN and with service profile SP1 assigned. This
service profile is cloned to service profile SP2 and assigned to Server2. Before Server2 boots, which three actions
needs to be performed? (Choose three.)
A. Check the WWPN that is assigned to the vHBAs on SP2.
B. Check the MAC address that is assigned to the vNICs on SP2.
C. Add two vHBAs and assign them to the proper VSAN.
D. Add the pWWN of SP2 to the zoning on the SAN switch.
E. Change the boot target on SP2.
F. Change the IP address of the vNICs.
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 8
Which two options are causes for failure of a Cisco C-Series server that is configured to boot from SAN? (Choose two.)
A. The boot LUN ID is not 0.
B. The ISCSI target is only available via one via one path through the network.
C. C-Series does not support boot from SAN.
D. The KVM dongle is attached to the front of the server with a USB stick installed.
E. Under the FCoE properties on the vNIC adapter, the FCoE VLAN ID is set to 10.
F. The boot table for fc0 has not been configured.
Correct Answer: DF

 

QUESTION 9
Which configuration is needed to suppress duplicate IP addresses when HSRP localization is enabled?
A. Configure matching passwords in each data center.
B. Configure no ip arp gratuitous hsrp duplicate under the VLAN.
C. Remove the passwords in each data center.
D. Configure mismatching HSRP versions between data centers.
E. Change one data center to run VRRP rather than HSRP.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC
indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
How can you identify the blade location when tracing server traffic?
A. by performing CDP checks on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects
B. by using a trace utility
C. by collecting traffic that uses a SPAN monitoring port
D. by examining the interface to which the server MAC address is connected
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You plan to troubleshoot EPG communication by using atomic counters. What do you consider before using the atomic
counters?
A. Atomic counters only property in a transit, non-full-mesh topology,
B. Atomic counters count the traffic for the endpoints that are located in different VRFs.
C. Atomic counters do not count the traffic between EPGs that reside in different VRFs.
D. Atomic counters also count spine proxy traffic
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
UCS-A# scope eth-uplink
UCS-A /eth-uplink # scope fabric a
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric # scope interface 2 3
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface # create mon-src Monitor23
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # set direction receive
UCS-A /eth-uplink/fabric/interface/mon-src* # commit-buffer
What does the command scope interface 2 3 in the above CLI command sequence do on a Cisco UCS blade server?
A. enters the interface command mode for the specified uplink port
B. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric A
C. enters the interface command mode for the specified Fabric B
D. enters slot 3 port 2 specified uplink port
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two are true with respect to the unified ports on the Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX Fabric Interconnect?
(Choose two.)
A. The port mode is automatically discovered after plugging in a LAN or Fibre Channel-attached cable.
B. By default, unified ports that are changed to Ethernet port mode are set to uplink Ethernet port type.
C. Ethernet ports must be grouped together in a block and must start with the first port and end with an odd numbered
port.
D. Alternating Ethernet and Fibre Channel ports is supported on the expansion module.
E. After making port mode changes on an expansion module, the module will reboot.
F. In a standalone configuration, making port mode changes to the fixed module will not cause the fabric interconnect to
reboot.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 2
Which two constructs allow for configuration of VLANs on specific uplink ports? (Choose two.)
A. LAN pin group
B. adapter policies
C. vNIC templates
D. VLAN manager
E. link profiles
F. VLAN groups
Correct Answer: AC
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0-2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter17.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter14.html

 

QUESTION 3
You have server that has a Cisco UCS CAN. A service profile that has a vNIC and a VHBA is mapped to fabric A.
The vNIC is configured to use VLAN 10. VLAN 10 is the native VLAN for the vNIC. The vHBA is configured to use
VSAN 2.
Which description of the configuration is true?
A. VSAN 2 can be configured by using VLAN 10 as the FCoE VLAN ID.
B. VSAN 2 can read traffic on VLAN 5.
C. VLAN 10 and VSAN 2 must use the same ID.
D. VSAN 2 can be mapped to their VLANs in fabric A.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
In an environment where multiple LDAP servers are used for user authentication, which Cisco UCS Manager feature
must be configured?
A. LDAP Locale
B. Organization
C. LDAP Provider Group
D. Authentication Domain
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/sample_configurations/UCSM_1_4_LDAP_with_AD/b
_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD/b_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD_chapter_010.html

https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Admin-Management/3-1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_0100.html#task_4331F325E9F249C5BEBD25E0C465309C
For implementations involving multiple LDAP databases, configure an LDAP provider group.

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit .Which type of connectivity is used to integrate the server into the Cisco UCS domain?lead4pass 300-175 exam question q5

A. direct connect mode cluster
B. direct connect mode non-cluster
C. Single Connect cluster
D. single-wire non-cluster
Correct Answer: A
Exam B

 

QUESTION 6
Which four physical connections on a fabric interconnect are needed to perform the initial system setup for a cluster
configuration? (Choose four.)
A. Ethernet uplink ports connected to upstream switch
B. console port connected to a computer terminal or console server.
C. Layer 1 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
D. Layer 1 port of the first fabric interconnect connected to Layer 2 port of the second fabric interconnect
E. Layer 2 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
F. Fibre Channel uplink ports connected to upstream fabric switch
G. management Ethernet port (mgmt0) connected to external switch or router
H. port channel to each fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: BCEG

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-175 exam question q7

What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Other answer (unknown)
C. Other answer (unknown)
D. Other answer (unknown)
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/
b_Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_C-
SeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

 

QUESTION 8
Which port type mode must be used on a Cisco UCS Manager for a SPAN port?
A. eth-traffic-mon
B. eth-uplink
C. eth-server
D. eth-storage
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two descriptions of a WWN pool are true? (Choose two.)
A. a collection of WWNs for use by the iSCSI interfaces in a Cisco UCS instance
B. a collection of Ethernet MAC addresses assigned to the Ethernet adapters in a Cisco UCS instance
C. a pool of WW port names, where WWPN is the port name assigned to the Fibre Channel port on the adapter
D. a collection of management IP addresses used to connect to servers
E. a pool of WW node names, where WWNN belongs to the node
Correct Answer: CE
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Gu
ide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_chapter 22.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following supports more than two component-resident versions of firmware?
A. mezzanine adapters
B. I/O modules
C. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
D. CIMCs
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-manager/110511-ucs-fw- mgmt-00.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Firmware-
Mgmt/3-1/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/
b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_011.html#task_C8E850B883D741BFBEF0F
BBA409C6CB7
The Fabric Interconnects are the only components that can store more than two versions.lead4pass 300-175 exam question q10

 

QUESTION 11
What is a true statement concerning automatic Fibre Channel pinning on a Cisco Unified Computing System 62XX
Fabric Interconnect?
A. By default, uplink Fibre Channel interfaces are configured for VSAN trunking.
B. Using NPV, each downstream server will be pinned to an uplink port that is based on a PIN group.
C. The Fibre Channel pinning process is implemented differently than end-host MAC address pinning.
D. With VSAN trunking, the automatic pinning of server traffic to Fibre Channel uplink ports will be based on the server
WWN.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Open the windows by clicking on the minimized at the bottom of the viewing area. Windows can be minimized by
clicking on the [X], repositioned by dragging the title bar, and resized by using the handle at the lower right corner to
customize the viewing area.
If you are required to access the devices to complete this scenario, the mouse cursor will use a hand symbol when
moved over device icons. Clicking the icon will open a device terminal so you can interact with the hardware. Open the
Questions window and begin by clicking a question number. When you have completed answering all questions, click
Done to continue.
Scenario
Use your UCS knowledge on Adapter errors ………………………………………configurations.lead4pass 300-175 exam question q12

We are working on which server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
Cisco UCS Manager has deleted the VM object from its database, yet it still exists in vCenter. For which two reasons is
the object removed from the Cisco UCS Manager database? (Choose two.)
A. The VM last passed traffic more than 5 minutes ago.
B. The VM is misconfigured.
C. The VM has been offline for more than 15 minutes.
D. vCenter is offline.
E. The VN link policy has been set for auto-deletion during a vMotion event.
F. The link between the fabric interconnect and IOM is offline.
G. The object was deleted in the Cisco UCS Manager, which also deletes it from vCenter.
H. The VM traffic is being sent to a SPAN
Correct Answer: CF

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Free test Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-375 Exam Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
A corporation has recently implemented a BYOD policy at their HQ. Which three risks should the security director be
concerned about? (Choose three.)
A. unauthorized users
B. rogue ad-hocs
C. software piracy
D. lost and stolen devices
E. malware
F. keyloggers
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 2
An engineer must change the wireless authentication from WPA2-Personal to WPA2-Enterprise. Which three
requirements are necessary? (Choose three.)
A. EAP
B. 802.1X
C. RADIUS
D. pre-shared key
E. 802.11u
F. fast secure roaming
G. 802.11i
Correct Answer: ACG
Difference between WPA called Personal and Enterprise is the authentication method:
Personal WPA relies on a PSK secret (Pre-Shared Key), and you don\\’t need an external server to perform
authentication
Enterprise WPA (as defined in the 802.11i standard) uses WPA2 with AES-CCM encryption, and authentication is
based on 802.1x/EAP using the RADIUS protocol.

 

QUESTION 3
Which security method does a Cisco guest wireless deployment that relies on the Cisco ISE guest portal for user
authentication and to an Anchor WLC for DHCP use?
A. Layer 2 and Layer 3
B. Layer 2 only
C. No security methods are needed to deploy CWA
D. Layer 3 only
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which condition introduce security risk to a BYOD policy?
A. enterprise-managed MDM platform used for personal devices
B. access to LAN without implementing an MDM solution
C. enforcement of BYOD access to internet only network
D. enterprise life-cycle enforcement of personal device refresh
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
On which two ports does the RADIUS server maintain a database and listen for incoming authentication and accounting
requests? (Choose two.)
A. UDP 1900
B. UDP port 1812
C. TCP port 1812
D. TCP port 1813
E. UDP port 1813
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation: RADIUS messages are sent as User Datagram Protocol (UDP) messages. UDP port 1812 is used for
RADIUS authentication messages and UDP port 1813 is used for RADIUS accounting messages. Some network
access servers might use UDP port 1645 for RADIUS authentication messages and UDP port 1646 for RADIUS
accounting messages. By default, IAS supports receiving RADIUS messages destined to both sets of UDP ports.
Reference: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-in/library/cc781821(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer is configuring client MFP. What WLAN Layer 2 security must be selected to use client MFP?
A. Static WEP
B. CKIP
C. WPA + WPA2 D. 802.1x
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In 802.11, management frames such as (de)authentication, (dis)association, beacons, and probes are
always unauthenticated and unencrypted. In other words, 802.11 management frames are always sent in an unsecured
manner, unlike the data traffic, which is encrypted with protocols such as WPA, WPA2, or, at least, WEP, and so
forth.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/82196-mfp.html#climfp

 

QUESTION 7
When a network engineer plans to implement the client MFP, which three settings should be supported by the client?
(Choose three.)
A. Cisco Compatible Extensions v5
B. Short Preamble check box
C. WEP
D. WPA2 with TKIP
E. WPA with TKIP
F. WPA2 with AES
Correct Answer: ADF

 

QUESTION 8
Which three commands are part of the requirements on a Cisco Catalyst 3850 Series Switch with Cisco IOS XE to
create a RADIUS authentication server group? (Choose three.)
A. authentication dot1x default local
B. aaa session-idcommon
C. dot1x system-auth-control
D. aaa new-model
E. local-auth wcm_eap_prof
F. security dot1x
G. dot1x config-auth-control
Correct Answer: BCD
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_usr_rad/configuration/xe-3se/3850/sec-usr-rad-
xe-3se-3850-book/sec-rad-multi-udp-ports.html

 

QUESTION 9
An engineer is configuring EAP-TLS with a client trusting server model and has configured a public root certification
authority. Which action does this allow?
A. utilizes two sub-certification servers
B. validates the AAA server
C. creates a PKI infrastructure
D. specifies a second certification authority to trust
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 300-375 exam question q10

You are configuring a controller that runs Cisco IOS XE by using the CLI. Which three configuration options are used for
802.11w Protected Management Frames? (Choose three.)
A. mandatory
B. association-comeback
C. SA teardown protection
D. query-retry-time
E. enable
F. comeback-time
Correct Answer: ABD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/technotes/5700/software/release/ios_xe_33/11rkw
_DeploymentGuide/b_802point11rkw_deployment_guide_cisco_ios_xe_release33/
b_802point11rkw_deployment_guide_cisco_ios_xe_release33_chapter_0100.pdf

 

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to allow employees to easily onboard their devices to the wireless network. Which process can be
configured on Cisco ISE to support this requirement?
A. self-registration guest portal
B. client provisioning
C. native supplicant provisioning
D. local web auth
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
How many mobility peers can a Cisco Catalyst 3850-MC node have?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 6
D. 16
E. 4
Correct Answer: A
The Mobility Controller (MC) role is supported on a number of different platforms like, the Cisco WLC 5700 Series,
CUWN and Catalyst 3850 Switches. The scale requirements on these three platforms are summarized in the table
below:lead4pass 300-375 exam question q12

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/mobility/configuration_
guide/b_mobility_3se_3850_cg/b_mobility_32se_3850_cg_chapter_010.html

 

QUESTION 13
An engineer is implementing SNMP v3 on a Cisco 5700 Series WLC. Which three commands are the minimum needed
to configure SNMP v3? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP-server enable traps
B. SNMP-server group
C. SNMP-server user
D. SNMP-server community
E. SNMP-server context
F. SNMP-server engineID
Correct Answer: BCF

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Server racks with telecommunication equipment in server room

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Free test Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Drag Drop 

This question concerns the installation of a Cisco Unified Computing System 5108 fan module. Drag the options on the

left to the right side in the correct order when performing the installation. 

Note: 

Not all of the steps on the left will be used. 

Select and Place:lead4pass 300-175 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
After an admin configures a service profile template and associates it to the blade, the admin notices that changes to
the template are not automatically pushed to profiles that are inheriting that template. The service profile template and
vNIC
templates are set to “initial”.
Which two actions resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Delete the service profile template and re-create it as an updating template.
B. Change the type of the service profile template from “initial” to “updating”.
C. Delete the vNIC template and re-create it as an updating template.
D. Change the type of the vNIC template from “initial” to “updating”.
E. Delete and recreate all templates.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 3
Which component is unsupported by the UEFI boot device in the Cisco UCS C-series standalone?
A. FlexFlash card
B. RAID array
C. FCoE
D. iSCSI
E. USB
F. PXE
G. PCI SSD
Correct Answer: G

 

QUESTION 4
Which addressing does Cisco UCS Manager use when communicating with Cisco UCS Central?
A. IP addresses of the UCS Fabric Interconnects
B. UCS CIMC
C. VMware ESXi server
D. The IP address of the UCS KVM
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
A Cisco UCS Administrator is planning to complete a firmware upgrade using Auto install. Which two options are
prerequisites to run AutoInstall? (Choose two.)
A. minor fault fixing
B. configuration backup
C. service profiles unmounted from the blade servers
D. time synchronization
E. fault suppression started on the blade servers
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware-
mgmt/gui/2-2/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_22_chapter_0101.pdf

 

QUESTION 6
You are connecting a Fibre Channel storage array to Cisco UCS What is a prerequisite to configuring Fibre Channel
traffic?
A. The VSAN requires a dedicated FCoE VLAN
B. The VSAN ID must match the FCoE VLAN ID
C. The VSAN ID must differ from the VLAN ID
D. The VLANs and the FCoE VLANs can have the same ID
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel. There are four
multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.lead4pass 300-175 exam question q7 lead4pass 300-175 exam question q7-1

Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates with the line
“pinning server pinning-failure link-down”?
A. Dynamic vNIC Connection
B. Link Protocol
C. Flow Control
D. Network Control
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-5100-series-blade- server-
chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui
/config/guide/2-2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapter_0
10101.html#concept_80DD753607A0427A9874F278E172F2FA

 

QUESTION 8
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
C. Other answers (unknown)
D. Other answers (unknown)
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/421_n1_1/
b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1/
Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1_chapter7.html#con_133799

 

QUESTION 9
What are the three main components of the VM-FEX environment? (Choose three.)
A. Red Hat Network Satellite server
B. ESX host with Cisco UCS M81KR VIC
C. ESX host with Cisco UCS M72KR CAN
D. VMware vCenter
E. VMware Update Manager
F. Cisco UCS Manager
G. Cisco VSG
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You are implementing Fibre Channel smart zoning, and you need to prevent RSCN events. Which
two configurations use the hardware resources efficiently? (Choose Two)

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q10

A. The NPV feature enabled upstream
B. A Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect that uses end-host mode
C. Storage that is directly attached to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
D. The NPIV feature enabled upstream
E. A cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect that uses Fabric Channel switch mode
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 11
Which tool provides an automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and
remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. SNMP
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which item represents a secure method of transmitting fault data with Cisco Call Home?
A. Cisco Transport Gateway
B. RSA Digital Certificate
C. IPsec
D. secure XML
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Your systems engineer has determined all of the firmware versions that the server operating system supports. What
steps are taken on Cisco UCS to avoid manual firmware upgrades on the blade servers?
A. Use Cisco UCS Manager firmware management to upgrade all Cisco UCS blade servers to the same target firmware
versions.
B. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies
with the service profiles.
C. Create a BIOS policy and define the host firmware package and management firmware package.
D. Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware policies
with the server pools.
Correct Answer: B

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Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable,
and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

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Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-301 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive
workload that performs financial risk modelling.
You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch.
You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs.
Minimize cost.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Basic A-series virtual machines
B. low-priority virtual machines
C. burstable virtual machines
D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview


QUESTION 2
You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage.
You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs.
You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Data Migration Assistant
D. AzCopy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include
in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Use SQLServer transactional replication.
C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
You have .NeT web service named service1 that has the following requirements.
Must read and write to the local file system.
Must write to the Windows Application event log. You need to recommend a solution to host Service1 in Azure . The
solution must meet the following requirements:
Minimize maintenance overhead.
Minimize costs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Azure web app
B. Azure function
C. an App service Environment
D. an Azure virtual machine scale set
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web
application. The web application will send data daily.
You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the following requirements:
Sends email notification when data is received from IoT devices.
Minimizes compute cost.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action.
B. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding.
C. Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action.
D. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on-premises physical server workloads. Each server workload is
independent of the other. The workloads are stateless.
You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on-premises data center fails, the workloads are
available in Azure as quickly as possible.
Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation?
A. Latest
B. Latest app-consistent
C. Latest multi-VM processed
D. Latest processed
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-failover


QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Contoso DB account named Account1 that has one write region and four read regions.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that, by default, any reads containers in Account1 will never see out
writes. The solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend?
A. Configure Account1 to use the Strong consistency level.
B. Create all the containers m Account1 as fixed.
C. Create all the containers m Account1 as unlimited.
D. Configure Account 1 to use the Consistent Prefix consistency level
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Project1. Only a group named Project1admins is assigned roles in the Project1
subscription. The Project1 subscription contains all the resources for an application named Application1.
Your company is developing a new application named Application2. The members of the Application2 development
team belong to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named App2Dev.
You identify the following requirements for Application2:
The members of App2Dev must be prevented from changing the role assignments in Azure.
The members of App2Dev must be able to create new Azure resources required by Application2.
All the required role assignments for Application2 will be performed by the members of Project1admins.
You need to recommend a solution for the role assignments of Application2.
Solution: In Project1, create a resource group named Application2RG. Assign Project1admins the Owner role for
Application2RG. Assign App2Dev the Contributor role for Application2RG.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises
data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016.
The
database server will not move to Azure.
A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions.
The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network
named VNET1.
You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application.
Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in a Premium App Service plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution for implementing the back-end tier of the payment processing system in Azure.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. an Azure SQL Database managed instance
B. a SQL Server database on an Azure virtual machine
C. an Azure SQL Database single database
D. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?
A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
B. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
C. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects.
D. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.
Correct Answer: B
Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a
link failure between Azure and the onpremises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on-
premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain
controllers on-premises)

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Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting,and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

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Latest effective Microsoft Azure Solutions Architect Expert AZ-300 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and
hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery.
You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1.
You need to add Host1 to ASR1.
What should you do?
A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/hyper-v-azure-tutorial


QUESTION 2
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid.
You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the
executions of the app.
What should you configure when you create the function app?
A. the Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan
B. the Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier
C. the Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan
D. the Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale


QUESTION 3
You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You install and configure AD Connect to use password hash synchronization as the single sign-on(SSO) method.
Staging mode is enabled.
You review the synchronization results and discover that the Synchronization Service Manager does not display any
sync jobs.
You need to ensure that the synchronization completes successfully.
What should you do?
A. From Azure PowerShell, run Start-AdSyncSycnCycle ?olicyType Initial.
B. Run Azure AD Connect and set the SSO method to Pass-through Authentication.
C. From Synchronization Service Manager, run a full import.
D. Run Azure AD Connect and disable staging mode.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-operations


QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an
Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?
A. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.
B. Set Session persistence to Client IP.
C. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
D. Enable Floating IP.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-portal-sql-
alwayson-int-listener


QUESTION 5
You create an Azure Time Series Insights event handler. You need to send data over the network as efficiently as
possible and optimize query performance. What should you do?
A. Create a query plan
B. Send all properties
C. Use a Tag ID
D. Use reference data
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/how-to-shape-query-json


QUESTION 6
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that is used by several departments at your company.
Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.lead4pass az-300 exam question q6

Another administrator deploys a virtual machine named VM1 and an Azure Storage account named Storage2 by using a
single Azure Resource Manager template.
You need to view the template used for the deployment.
From which blade can you view the template that was used for the deployment?
A. Container1
B. VM1
C. Storage2
D. RG1
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2.
You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1.
You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2.
What should you do first?
A. From the RSV2 blade, click Backup. From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click
Backup
B. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup
C. From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery
Services vault
D. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm


QUESTION 8
You develop an entertainment application where users can buy and trade virtual real estate. The application must scale
to support thousands of users.
The current architecture includes five Azure virtual machines (VM) that connect to an Azure SQL Database for account
information and Azure Table Storage for backend services. A user interacts with these components in the cloud at any
given time.
Routing Service ?Routes a request to the appropriate service and must not persist data across sessions.
Account Service ?Stores and manages all account information and authentication and requires data to persist across
sessions
User Service ?Stores and manages all user information and requires data to persist across sessions.
Housing Network Service ?Stores and manages the current real-estate economy and requires data to persist across
sessions.
Trade Service ?Stores and manages virtual trade between accounts and requires data to persist across sessions.
Due to volatile user traffic, a microservices solution is selected for scale agility.
You need to migrate to a distributed microservices solution on Azure Service Fabric.
Solution: Create a Service Fabric Cluster with a stateful Reliable Service for Routing Service. Deploy a Guest
Executable to Service Fabric for each component.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines.
Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance.
You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center.
What should you do?
A. Add an extension to the virtual machines
B. Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine
C. Assign tags to the virtual machines
D. Configure locks for the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags


QUESTION 10
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot.
The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly.
You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot.
What should you implement?
A. The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B. The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.
C. The Skype Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
D. The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?
A. an Azure Event Hub
B. an Azure Notification Hub
C. an Azure Logic App
D. an Azure Service Bus
Correct Answer: A
Scenario: Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified.
You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party
resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those
events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can
wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any
code.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app


QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications


QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.

lead4pass az-300 exam question q13

Store1 contains a file share named Data. Data contains 5,000 files.
You need to synchronize the files in Data to an on-premises server named Server1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Download an automation script
B. Create a sync group
C. Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
D. Create a container instance
E. Register Server1
Correct Answer: BCE
Step 1 (C): Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to be synced with an Azure file
share
Step 2 (E): Register Server1.
Register Windows Server with Storage Sync Service
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service.
Step 3 (B): Create a sync group and a cloud endpoint.
A sync group defines the sync topology for a set of files. Endpoints within a sync group are kept in sync with each other.
A sync group must contain one cloud endpoint, which represents an Azure file share and one or more server endpoints.
A server endpoint represents a path on registered server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

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640-875 SPNGN1: Latest Cisco CCNA SP 640-875 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Building Cisco Service Provider Next Generation Networks, Part 1 (SPNGN1) v1.2: 640-875 exam. Share the latest 640-875 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers.
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640-875 SPNGN1 – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spngn1.html

Latest effective Cisco 640-875 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco IOS CLI command is used to verify the speed and duplex settings on the Fa0/1 port on a Cisco switch?
A. show ip interfaces fa0/1
B. show interfaces fa0/1
C. show interfaces fa0/1 switchport
D. show ip interfaces brief
E. show interfaces switchport
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 2
This show output is from the S7 Cisco Metro Switch and the PE7 Cisco ASR 9000 Series Router.
Which configuration change(s) is/are needed to bring the S7 FastEthernet 0/2 interface into the up/up state?
S7#show cdp neighbors<OUTPUT OMITTED> Device ID Local Intrfce Holdtme Capability Platform Port IDPE7 Fas 0/2 163 R ASR9K Ser Gig 0/0/0/0S78 Fas
0/23 146 S I ME-3400E- Fas 0/21S8 Fas 0/21 178 S I ME-
3400E- Fas 0/21 *Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %ETHCNTR-3-
HALF_DUX_COLLISION_EXCEED_THRESHOLD: Collisions at FastEthernet0/2 exceed threshold. Considered as loop-back.*Mar 20 21:28:02.177: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: loopback error detected on Fa0/2, putting Fa0/2 in err-disable
state*Mar 20 21:28:03.184: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/2, changed state to down S7#show interface fa0/2FastEthernet0/2 is down, line protocol is down (err-disabled) Hardware is Fast Ethernet,
address is e8ba.70b5.6c04 (bia e8ba.70b5.6c04) MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Half-duplex, 10Mb/s, media type
is 10/100BaseTX input flow-control is off, output flow-control is unsupported ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:40, output 00:00:00, output hang never Last clearing of “show interface” counters never Input queue:
0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 484423 packets input, 39349929 bytes,
0 no buffer Received 484423 broadcasts (167203 multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 1 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog, 167203 multicast, 0 pause input 0 input packets with dribble condition detected
972398 packets output, 128931949 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 46 collisions, 4 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier, 0 PAUSE output 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:PE7#show interfaces gi0/0/0/0GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down Interface state transitions: 4 Hardware is GigabitEthernet, address is 4055.392f.40a8 (bia 4055.392f.40a8) Internet address is
192.168.107.70/24 MTU 1514 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit (Max: 100000 Kbit) reliability 255/255, txload 0/255, rxload 0/255 Encapsulation ARPA, Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, THD, link type is force-up output flow control is off, input flow control is off
loopback not set, ARP type ARPA, ARP timeout 04:00:00 Last input 00:00:00, output
00:00:35 Last clearing of “show interface” counters never 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 972551 packets input, 128953765 bytes, 729 total input drops 172486 drops for
unrecognized upper-level protocol Received 0 broadcast packets, 800781 multicast packets 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles, 0 parity 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored, 0 abort 484545 packets output, 39360900 bytes, 0 total
output drops Output 317283 broadcast packets, 167262 multicast packets 0 output errors, 0 underruns, 0 applique, 0 resets 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out 4 carrier transitions
A. Enable loopback line on the S7 Fa0/2 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
B. Enable duplex half on the PE7 Gi0/0/0/0 interface then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
C. Change S7 Fa0/2 interface to duplex full and speed 100 then shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface.
D. Just need to no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
E. Just need to shut and no shut the Fa0/2 interface on S7.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 3
If a bridge port is in the non-designated state, which two statements about spanning-tree operations on this port are true? (Choose two.)
A. This port is in the Forwarding state.
B. This port sends BPDUs on the attached link.
C. This port has the lowest cost to the root bridge.
D. This port is considered the root port.
E. This port receives BPDUs.
F. This port is in the Blocked state.
Correct Answer: EF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 4
Which three physical lines can provide local or remote access to a Cisco router or switch? (Choose three.)
A. Console port
B. Modem port
C. Virtual terminal lines
D. Switch fabric interface
E. Aux port
F. ManagementEthernet0/RSP0/CPU0/0
Correct Answer: AEF
Explanation

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q5Company 1 has merged with Company 2. Company 1 is using RIPv2 as its IGP and Company 2 is using EIGRP as its IGP. EIGRP also is running between R1 and R2 over the WAN link. Which action must be taken to allow these two
configurations?
The Company 1 RIP routes appear as external EIGRP routes within Company 2. The Company 2 EIGRP routes appear as RIPv2 routes within Company 1.
A. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router.
B. Enable RIPv2 on the R2 router and on all internal routers of Company 2. Enable EIGRP on all internal routers of Company 1.
C. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 and R2 routers.
D. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R1 router.
E. Configure mutual route redistribution between RIPv2 and EIGRP on the R2 router.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about classful or classless routing protocol operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. Classful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information with theirrouting updates.
B. Variable-length subnet masks are supported when using classful routing protocols.
C. Examples of classless routing protocols include RIPv1, EIGRP, OSPF, andIS-IS.
D. Classful routing protocols do not support discontiguous subnets.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

 

QUESTION 7
When EIGRP is enabled on Cisco IOS XR, which EIGRP feature is on by default?
A. no auto-summary
B. stub routing
C. unequal cost paths load-balancing
D. no ip eigrp split-horizon
E. eigrp authentication
Correct Answer: AExplanation

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q8

Two routers are named R1 and R2. R1 runs Cisco IOS Software. R2 runs Cisco IOS XR Software. To form an EIGRP IPv6 adjacency between the two routers, which three configurations must you add? (Choose three.)
A. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv4 address.
B. On R1, configure router-id with an IPv6 address.
C. On R1, enter the no shutdown command inside the IPv6 EIGRP process.
D. On R1 and R2, enter the eigrp no shutdown command inside the interfaces.
E. On R1, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
F. On R2, configure IPv6 unicast routing in config mode.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 9
Which statement about VRFs is true?
A. One interface can be a member of multiple VRFs.
B. Each VRF has its own routing table, but it has a shared FIB.
C. Each VRF has its own routing table and its own FIB.
D. Each VRF has its own routing table, and it does not have an FIB.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 10
You plan to configure NAT by using these guidelines:
Implement NAT for the inside network 192.168.1.0/128 to the range of 209.165.201.1 to 209.165.201.5/128.
Create a static association for the server 192.168.1.129 to the public IP address of 209.165.201.6.
Implement PAT for the IP address range of 192.168.2.0/24 with the outside interface.
Which commands should you use to configure NAT?
A. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 0.0.0.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description
PublicWan
ip nat outside
B. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.128 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0 overload
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
C. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.128
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
D. access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.127
access-list 2 permit 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat pool NATCustomerA 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 prefix 25 ip nat inside source list 1 pool NATCustomerA overload
ip nat inside source static 192.168.1.129 209.165.201.6
ip nat inside source list 2 interface g1/0/0
interface f0/0
description CustomerFacing Interface
ip nat inside
interface g1/0/0
description PublicWan
ip nat outside
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q11

How many IP addresses does Router1 have that are available for DHCP clients?
A. 100
B. 99
C. 254
D. 199
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 12
Which type of ICMP message is generated when a datagram is discarded because the TTL reaches a value of 0?
A. Type 0 (Echo Reply)
B. Type 12 (Parameter Problem)
C. Type 11 (Time Exceeded)
D. Type 16 (Information Reply)
E. Type 10 (Source Quench)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 13
In IPv6, which kind of record is used for reverse lookups?
A. nibble
B. AAAA
C. PTR
D. APL
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 640-875 exam question q14

A Cisco IOS Router has the configuration that is shown in the exhibit. The Cisco IOS Router is replaced by a Cisco IOS XR device. To duplicate the IPv6 EIGRP parameters of the Cisco IOS Router, which configuration should you use on the
Cisco IOS XR device?
A. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
B. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv6
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
exit
commit
C. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
ipv6 eigrp 100
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
ipv6 router eigrp 100
!
ipv6 router eigrp 100
no shutdown
exit
commit
D. interface Loopback 0
ipv6 address 2001:db8:aaaa::1/128
commit
!
interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:db8:bbbb::1/64
commit
!
router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
interface loopback 0
interface gigabitethernet 1/0/1
commit
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 15
DOCSIS architecture includes which two primary components? (Choose two.)A. a DSL modem
B. a cable modem
C. CMTS
D. UMTS
E. an IP PBX
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

 

QUESTION 16
DRAG DROP
Drag the WAN technologies from the left and drop them on the correct descriptions on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q16Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
Drag the PPPoE negotiation steps from the left and drop them in order on the right.lead4pass 640-875 exam question q17Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 18
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q18 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-4 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-5 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q18-6Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 19
HOTSPOTlead4pass 640-875 exam question q19 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-1 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-2 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-3 lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-4Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 20
At what layer of the OSI model is the Label Distribution Protocol present?
A. data link
B. transport
C. application
D. presentation
E. session
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

 

QUESTION 21
Which subnetwork mask should be used in a point-to-point link in order to use IPv4 address block more efficiently?
A. 209.165.201.0/32
B. 209.165.201.0/31
C. 209.165.201.0/30
D. 209.165.201.0/29
E. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. lead4pass 640-875 exam question q19-5Customer A site 1 is reporting to the service provider that they cannot reach Customer A site 2 networks.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. one of the PE routers is adding summarization incorrectly
B. incorrect network statement
C. ospf area-id configured incorrectly
D. configuration missing subnets keyword
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 23
Which three are features present on both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6? (Choose three.)
A. connectivity tests
B. address assignment
C. information error messaging
D. address resolution
E. mobile IPv4 support
F. multicast group management
G. mobile IPv6 support
H. fragmentation needed notification
Correct Answer: ACH
Explanation

 

QUESTION 24
Company policy only allows SSH for remote access into Cisco routers. Which configuration would only allow SSH?
A. access-lists 101 deny tcp any eq telnet
B. transport input SSH
C. access-class 101 in
D. access-class 101 out
E. transport preferred SSH
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

 

QUESTION 25
You are designing a network in accordance with the hierarchical network design model. The distribution layer provides which three functionalities? (Choose three.)
A. workgroup segmentation
B. high-speed switching
C. connectivity to workstations
D. policy-based connectivity
E. WAN connection aggregation at the edge
F. 802.1x security
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

 

QUESTION 26
You have a LAN that has three computers. The computers are connected by a switch. The computers are in the 192.168.1.0/24 network. Which network device enables you to connect the LAN to the Internet?
A. a switch
B. a hub
C. a router
D. a DSL modem in bridge mode
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

 

QUESTION 27
You plan to implement QoS on a network, using these four classes:
A class for real-time applications
A class for interactive applications
A class for batch applications
A scavenger class
Which two classes are interactive applications? (Choose two.)
A. email
B. SSH
C. database updates
D. IP telephony
E. file transfers
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

 

QUESTION 28
Which command assigns an IP address to the Loopback1 interface on a Cisco IOS Router?
A. ip address 192.168.41.111 255.255.255.240
B. set ip 127.0.0.1/32
C. ip address 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 169.254.47.81 255.255.0.0
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

 

QUESTION 29
You are configuring manual route summarization in EIGRP. Which two networks are summarized into 10.134.17.64/27? (Choose two.)
A. 10.134.17.64 255.255.255.240
B. 10.134.17.100/30
C. 10.134.17.0 255.255.255.128
D. 10.134.17.92/30
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

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642-889 SPEDGE: Latest Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-889 Practical Exam questions and Answers

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Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Edge Network Services (SPEDGE): “642-889 exam“. Share the latest 642-889 dumps and Practice test questions for free. Real and effective exam questions and answers. 642-889 pdf online Download, 642-889 YouTube video online learning to improve skills! Ciscoexampdf share 30 Practice test questions for FREE! Get the full 642-889 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/642-889.html (Total questions:126 Q&A)

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642-889 SPEDGE – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/spedge.html

Latest effective Cisco 642-889 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
In which Cisco IOS XR configuration mode is the redistribute static command applied to enable the redistribution of
static VRF routes between the PE routers?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-router)#
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf)#
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-vrf-af)#
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q2PE1 and PE2 are advertising the same subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to PE3. Which PE advertised subnet is installed at the
PE3 XYZ BGP table?
A. PE2 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
B. PE2 subnet because it has the same export RT value as export RT on PE3
C. PE1 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
D. PE1 subnet because it has the same export RT value as import RT on PE3
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3lead4pass 642-889 exam question q3On PE7, what is the PWtype on the p2p ac-pw named “testpw”?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. PPP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
When implementing CSC services, which two methods can be used to exchange label information between the
downstream CSC customer carrier and the CSC backbone carrier? (Choose two.)
A. using MP-BGP
B. using RSVP
C. using IGP and LDP
D. using back-to-back VRF
E. using front VRF and internal VRF
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring VPLS BGP-based autodiscovery on a Cisco IOS XE PE router. Which two configurations
must be included for proper implementation? (Choose two.)
A. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
B. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community extended
C. router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
D. router bgp 61000 address-family l2vpn vpls send-community-eBGP
E. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 62000
F. l2vpn vfi context vpls1 autodiscovery bgp signaling ldp router bgp 61000 neighbor 172.16.10.2 remote-as 61000
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 6
Which CE-to-PE routing protocol implements the down bit as a loop prevention mechanism?
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. IS-IS
D. OSPF
E. BGP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for encryption that is
often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
When using the Cisco EVC software infrastructure, a double-tagged frame with a customer VLAN of 10 and a service
provider VLAN of 150 will be best matched by which encapsulation configuration?
A. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q any
B. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 150
C. encapsulation dot1q 10 second-dot1q 50-200
D. encapsulation dot1q 10
E. encapsulation dot1q 150
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 642-889 exam question q9

Given the output shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The configured remote AS for neighbor 10.1.1.1 is 1234.
B. Both prefixes that are referenced by network commands will be visible with the show bgp command from the
information that is shown in the output.
C. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 cannot learn any routes from this router.
D. The router cannot learn any routes for neighbor 10.1.1.1.
E. Routes from the Internet VRF that are injected into BGP through redistribution will be advertised to neighbor
10.1.1.1.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
When implementing EoMPLS PWs, which configuration is optional?
A. matching PW ID on both ends
B. Xconnect
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. control word
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
When troubleshooting EoMPLS configuration problems, which three parameters must match between the two ends of
the pseudowire configurations? (Choose three.)
A. control word usage
B. MTU size
C. pseudowire ID
D. Xconnect group name
E. EFP subinterface number
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 12
A network engineer working for a very large financial institution must migrate the legacy Frame Relay and ATM virtual
circuits over a MPLS VPN solution. Which option is a benefit in choosing a MPLS Layer 3 VPN versus any other Layer 2
VPN design?
A. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design offers better scalability for large organizations.
B. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less customer edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
C. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN solution provides the possibility to implement overlapping IP addressing.
D. An MPLS Layer 3 VPN design requires less provider edge router configuration than any other Layer 2 VPN
implementation.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q13-1

On PE7, how many multiprotocol IBGP routes are learned from PE8 and what is the next-hop IP address? (Choose
two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 10.8.1.1
E. 172.16.8.1
F. 192.168.108.81
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 14
When implementing a Layer 2 transport subinterface on a Cisco IOS XR router, which encapsulation option is used to
match any packets that are not matched by any other service instances?
A. default
B. untagged
C. any
D. tag
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Which two statements regarding Cisco 6PE operations are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The top label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
B. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by MP-BGP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
C. The top label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used to reach the egress PE.
D. The inner label in the label stack is assigned by LDP, and it is used for IPv6 forwarding at the egress PE.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q16Which two descriptions outline the traffic flow among the three sites? (Choose two.)
A. The MNL site communicates with the XYZ and ABC sites.
B. The XYZ and ABC sites communicate using the default route that points to the MNL site.
C. XYZ sees the MNL and ABC routes.
D. ABC sees the MNL and XYZ routes.
E. The MNL site acts as a central site for the ABC and XYZ sites.
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 17
Which two Layer 2 VPN methods support interworking between customer sites with different Layer 2 encapsulation at
each end (for example, Frame Relay to Ethernet interworking)? (Choose two.)
A. AToM
B. VPLS
C. GET VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 18
A company recently completed a third company acquisition and is requesting to deploy a point- to-point VPN technology
over the IP core network to extend their IGP domain. The company core network is not MPLS-enabled yet. Which
technology matches these requirements?
A. Any Transport over MPLS
B. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol version 3
C. Virtual Private LAN Service
D. Point-to-Point Protocol
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Within the service provider IP/MPLS core network, what must be implemented to enable Layer 3 MPLS VPN services?
A. IS-IS or OSPF on all the PE and P routers
B. MP-BGP between the PE routers
C. RSVP on all the PE and P routers
D. targeted LDP between the PE routers
E. LDP between the CE and PE routers
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 20
In MPLS Layer 3 VPN implementations, what is used on the PE router to isolate potential overlapping routing
information between different customers?
A. route targets
B. VRFs
C. VC IDs
D. pseudowire IDs
E. pseudowire classes
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which BGP extended community is used to control the distribution of VPN routing information and to identify routers that
may receive a set of routes that carry the community?
A. SOO
B. RT
C. opaque
D. route origin
E. RD
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
When implementing VPLS on Cisco routers, which data structure resembles a virtual switch and is used for learning the
MAC addresses?
A. VRF
B. VFI
C. SVI
D. BVI
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 23
When implementing EoMPLS on Cisco IOS XR routers, which command under the l2vpn configuration mode is used to
define the pseudowire?
A. pbb
B. xconnect
C. connect
D. bridge
E. bridge-domain
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q24-1

On PE7, which encapsulation method is used on the pseudowire that connects to the 10.8.1.1 neighbor?
A. MPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. IP
D. LDP
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-1 lead4pass 642-889 exam question q25-2

On PE7, which three statements are correct regarding the MPLS VPN configurations used to support the connectivity
between the CE7 and CE8 sites? (Choose three.)
A. The RD is 1:1
B. The import and export RTs are 1:1
C. Interface GiO/0/0/0 is associated to the “default” VRF
D. The network that connects PE7to CE7 is redistributed into multiprotocol IBGP
E. The multiprotocol IBGP routes learned have a BGP origin code of “i”
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 26
When implementing H-VPLS with QinQ access on Cisco Metro Ethernet switches, which two commands enable the
QinQ tagging? (Choose two.)
A. encapsulation dot1q {customer-vlan} second-tag {sp-vlan}
B. encapsulation dot1q {sp-vlan} second-tag {customer-vlan}
C. switchport mode dot1q-tunnel
D. switchport mode trunk
E. switchport access vlan {sp-vlan}
F. switchport access vlan {customer-vlan}
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 27
What is an advantage of using the Cisco EVC infrastructure to implement carrier-class Ethernet services that are not
available on non-EVC-capable platforms?
A. PW redundancy
B. interworking support
C. PW stitching support
D. flexible frame-matching support and VLAN tag manipulation
E. local cross-connect support
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 28
What is the purpose of the route distinguisher in a service provider network?
A. to identify which prefixes should be imported
B. to identify customer local prefixes
C. to identify customer global prefixes
D. to identify which prefixes should be exported from BGP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 29
The Cisco IOS XR address-family ipv4 labeled-unicast and the Cisco IOS/IOS XE neighbor send-label commands are
used in which MPLS implementation?
A. Cisco MPLS TE
B. CSC using MP-BGP for label exchange
C. back-to-back VRF
D. AToM
E. VPLS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which two protocols can be used for VPLS signaling on a Cisco IOS XR router? (Choose two.)
A. BGP
B. LDP
C. TDP
D. RSVP
E. PBB
Correct Answer: AB

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Hot Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which description of the elasticity of a Cloud-based infrastructure is true?
A. provides dynamic on-demand provisioning of services in near real time
B. enables sharing of resources and costs across a large pool of users
C. multisite architecture to reduce impact from outages in any one site
D. provides a security posture that is manageable from a single point of control
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which characteristic is an inoperative attribute of a private Cloud deployment?
A. self service and on demand
B. shared by many companies
C. highly scalable
D. metered for reporting or billing purposes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
What are the five specific characteristics common to the Cloud environments?
A. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
B. on-demand usage, ubiquitous access, tiered-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
C. on-demand usage, autonomous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
D. dynamic usage, ubiquitous access, multi-tenancy, measured usage, resiliency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which best describes a SaaS Cloud model?
A. infrastructure that presents the user with an operating system allowing programming language
execution environment for testing database and web servers
B. infrastructure that virtualizes server functions on a hypervisor
C. infrastructure that provides elastic storage and computing resources
D. a platform that provides access to application software or database resources
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
IaaS is an acronym for what type of Cloud?
A. Instances as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Internet as a Service
D. Images as a Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud? 210-451 dumps
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which statement defines Cloud Service Models?
A. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
B. internet as a service, software as a service, platform as a service
C. infrastructure as a service, big data as a service, platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service, software as a service, grid as a service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which best describes a Cloud deployment model that relies on interoperability between Cloud providers?
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. Multi-Cloud
C. InterCloud
D. Community Cloud
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three options are considered Cloud deployment models? (Choose three.)
A. Public Cloud
B. Hybrid Cloud
C. Open Cloud
D. Private Cloud
E. Stack Cloud
F. Distributed Cloud
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11
Company ABC hosts all their applications internally. During one day of the month, the demand for their applications far exceeds the capacity of their datacenter. Which Cloud model should Company ABC consider using?
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option lists the Cloud deployment models?
A. public, community, private, hybrid
B. cluster, community, private, hybrid
C. public, performance, private, hybrid
D. public, community, secure, hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service
E. QoS
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 15
Which description of Cisco vPath is true?
A. a protocol that provides end-to-end path assurance for Cloud-based systems
B. an embedded intelligence in Cisco VEM that provides abstracted control and forward plane functionality
C. a service that provides forwarding plane abstraction for inline redirection of traffic for vServices
D. a vService that allows for security policy enforcement through transparent bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which description of RAID6 is true?
A. block-level striping of data with double distributed parity
B. drive-level striping of data with double distributed parity
C. block-level striping of data with single distributed parity
D. block-level mirroring of data with double distributed parity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which Cloud storage technology would be accessed via the following URL?
https://cloud.example.com/v1/account/container/object
A. pNFS
B. WebDAV
C. Cinder
D. Swift
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following protocols are considered to be “file based”?
A. NFS, FCoE, iSCSI, CIFS
B. iSCSI, NFS, CIFS
C. NFS or CIFS
D. FCoE or NFS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following two storage technologies would require that its’ block device be attached to an instance before you can perform any filesystem commands? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI LUN
B. Cinder Volume
C. NFS Filesystem Meta-Volume
D. Direct Object Block Device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which type of zoning is represented? 210-451 dumps
zone name zone1 vsan 10 member pwwn 20:00:00:55:a5:00:00:04 member pwwn
50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:05 member pwwn 50:00:d3:10:00:18:e1:06
A. Single Initiator Multi Target
B. Multi Initiator Single Target
C. Single Target Single Initiator
D. Multi Initiator Multi Target
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
In an Openstack Cloud deployment which has a fibre channel SAN providing the block storage, which two options are valid fibre channel zone member types? (Choose two.)
A. FCID
B. DomainID
C. WWPN
D. OpenStack Volume ID
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
Which option describes what the use of no_root_squash does in an NFS environment?
A. It causes the NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and is required for hypervisors that utilize RBAC for users.
B. It allows a NFS share to be mounted and written to as the root user by the hypervisor.
C. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by root, but all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
D. It allows a NFS share to be mounted by a non-root user and all subsequent writes are as a non-root user.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are characteristics of NAS? (Choose two.)
A. NAS provides block-based storage only.
B. NAS provides storage and filesystems.
C. NAS requires no authentication.
D. SMB is a protocol that can be used for NAS.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client 192.168.1.100?
A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which Cisco product can provide an iSCSI target for an iSCSI initiator?
A. Cisco MDS 9710
B. Cisco Nexus 7010
C. Cisco UCS Invicta
D. Cisco Nexus 9510
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which Cisco product is outside of a Vblock? 210-451 dumps
A. Cisco Nexus 1k
B. Cisco C-Series UCS
C. Cisco Nexus 3k
D. Cisco UCS Central
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which integrated infrastructure rely on OpenStack technology?
A. FlexPod
B. Vblock
C. VSPEX
D. OpenBlocks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which platform is ideally used to orchestrate a FlexPod from a single management platform?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Prime Cloud Automation Manager
D. Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure Manager
Correct Answer: B

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Useful Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-461 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
70-461 dumps
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers=CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012.
An application that uses a database begins to run slowly.
Your investigation shows the root cause is a query against a read-only table that has a clustered index.
The query returns the following six columns:
One column in its WHERE clause contained in a non-clustered index Four additional columns One COUNT (*) column based on a grouping of the four additional columns
You need to optimize the statement.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the query.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 3
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
70-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate] FROM Sales.SalesOrder GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (
SELECT s.OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD (DAY, -90, GETDATE())
D. Rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM
Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90))
Rewrite the UDF as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN (
SELECT OrderDate
FROM Sales.SalesOrder s
WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID
AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -@MaxAge, GETDATE())
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database that stores order information for an online store website. 70-461 dumps The database contains a table that is defined by the following Transact-SQL statement:
70-461 dumps
You need to ensure that purchase order numbers are used only for a single order.
What should you do?
A. Create a new CLUSTERED constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
B. Create a new UNIQUE constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
C. Create a new PRIMARY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
D. Create a new FOREIGN KEY constraint on the PurchaseOrderNumber column.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You use a contained database named ContosoDb within a domain. You need to create a user who can log on to the ContosoDb database. You also need to ensure that you can port the database to different database servers within the domain without additional user account configurations.
Which type of user should you create?
A. SQL user without login
B. SQL user with a custom SID
C. SQL user with login
D. Domain user
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee.
Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
70-461 dumps
Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables.
Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee table.
You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility.
On which column in the Employee table should you create a Foreign Key constraint that references a different table in the database?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You support a database structure shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to write a query that displays the following details:
Total sales made by sales people, year, city, and country Sub totals only at the city level and country level A grand total of the sales amount
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY GROUPING SETS ((SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart
(yyyy, SaleDate)), (Country, City), (Country), ())
B. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, Country, City, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate))
C. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY CUBE(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
D. SELECT SalesPerson.Name, Country, City,
DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate) AS Year, Sum(Amount) AS Total FROM Sale INNER JOIN SalesPerson ON Sale.SalesPersonID = SalesPerson.SalesPersonID GROUP BY ROLLUP(SalesPerson.Name, DatePart(yyyy, SaleDate), City, Country)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You plan to write a query for a new business report that will contain several nested queries.
You need to ensure that a nested query can call a table-valued function for each row in the main query.
Which query operator should you use in the nested query?
A. CROSS APPLY
B. INNER JOIN
C. OUTER JOIN
D. PIVOT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are developing a database that will contain price information.
You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits.
Which data type should you use?
A. Smallmoney
B. Numeric
C. Money
D. Varchar
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory (
ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
The new column is expected to be queried heavily, and you need to be able to index the column. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemslnStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse PERSISTED
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse) PERSISTED
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemsInWarehouse)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. 70-461 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
<CUSTOMERS Name=”Customer A” Country=”Australia”>
<ORDERS OrderID=”1″ OrderDate=”2001-01-01″ Amount=”3400.00″ />
<ORDERS OrderID=”2″ OrderDate=”2002-01-01″ Amount=”4300.00″ />
</CUSTOMERS>
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId= Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
A table named Profits stores the total profit made each year within a territory. The Profits table has columns named Territory, Year, and Profit.
You need to create a report that displays the profits made by each territory for each year and its previous year.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
B. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
C. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LAG(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Territory ORDER BY Year) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
D. SELECT Territory, Year, Profit, LEAD(Profit, 1, 0) OVER (PARTITION BY Year ORDER BY Territory) AS PreviousYearProfit FROM Profits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are a database developer for an application hosted on a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
The database contains two tables that have the following definitions:
70-461 dumps
Global customers place orders from several countries.
You need to view the country from which each customer has placed the most orders.
Which Transact-SQL query do you use?
A. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
B. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM (SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry, RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY COUNT(o.OrderAmount) ASC) AS Rnk
FROM Customer c
INNER JOIN Orders o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
GROUP BY c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry) cs WHERE Rnk = 1
C. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC) AS Rnk
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
WHERE o.Rnk = 1
D. SELECT c.CustomerID, c.CustomerName, o.ShippingCountry FROM Customer c INNER JOIN
(SELECT CustomerID, ShippingCountry,
COUNT(OrderAmount) DESC) AS OrderAmount
FROM Orders
GROUP BY CustomerID, ShippingCountry) AS o
ON c.CustomerID = o.CustomerID
ORDER BY OrderAmount DESC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are maintaining a Microsoft SQL Server database. You run the following query:
70-461 dumps
You observe performance issues when you run the query. You capture the following query execution plan:
70-461 dumps
You need to ensure that the query performs returns the results as quickly as possible.
Which action should you perform?
A. Add a new index to the ID column of the Person table.
B. Add a new index to the EndDate column of the History table.
C. Create a materialized view that is based on joining data from the ActiveEmployee and History tables.
D. Create a computed column that concatenates the GivenName and SurName columns.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database named ContosoDb. Tables are defined as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-461 dumps
You need to display rows from the Orders table for the Customers row having the CustomerId value set to 1 in the following XML format.
70-461 dumps
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW
B. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML RAW, ELEMENTS
C. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
D. SELECT OrderId, OrderDate, Amount, Name, Country FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId – Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
E. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO
F. SELECT Name, Country, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML AUTO, ELEMENTS
G. SELECT Name AS ‘@Name’, Country AS ‘@Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
H. SELECT Name AS ‘Customers/Name’, Country AS ‘Customers/Country’, OrderId, OrderDate, Amount FROM Orders INNER JOIN Customers ON Orders.CustomerId = Customers.CustomerId WHERE Customers.CustomerId = 1 FOR XML PATH (‘Customers’)
Correct Answer: G

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