Lead4pass is a leading IT exam preparation materials provider who offers you first-hand access to comprehensive IT exam knowledge. http://www.lead4pass.com/ Our materials are written according to the latest real IT certification exams. The actual exam questions and answers will sharpen your skills and expand your knowledge to obtain a definite success. We provide all kinds of the hottest IT certification exam such as Microsoft, Cisco, IBM, Oracle, CompTIA, HP and any other IT certification exams of the same level and fame. Our goal is to save your money and time on your preparation for your certification exam. You will find we are a trustful partner if you choose us as your assistance on your IT certification exam.
100% Real Exam Q&As
Easy and Safe Purchase
Product Instant Download
365 Days Free Update
7*24 Customer Support
We know thoroughly of what the candidate need to be successful on their IT certification exams. Our material on our site Lead4pass is exam-oriented, keeping in view the candidates requirements and level of understanding. The materials are in the most popular and easy-to-use PDF version. You can use it on any devices with you anywhere.
Lead4pass Latest and Most Accurate IT Exam Material and Real Exam Q&As
Millions of interested professionals can touch the destination of success in exams by lead4pass.com. products which would be available, affordable, updated and of really best quality to overcome the difficulties of any course outlines. Questions and Answers material is updated in highly outclass manner on regular basis and material is released periodically and is available in testing centers with whom we are maintaining our relationship to get latest material.
• 6000+ Questions and Answers
• 6000+ Free demo downloads available
• 50+ Preparation Labs
• 20+ Representatives Providing 24/7 Support
How to buy
How to purchase on lead4pass.com.
If you already have an lead4pass.com account or want to register an lead4pass.com account.
After you complete your payment, we will send the exam in pdf format to you in 10 hours. In our non-working time, we will send the exam to you ASAP, no later than 24 hours.
A quick buy if you do not have an lead4pass.com account.
As a professional IT exam study material provider, Lead4pass gives you more than just exam questions and answers. We provide our customers with the most accurate study material about the exam and the guarantee of pass. We assist you to prepare for almost all the main certifications which are regarded as valuable the IT sector.
Where can I get the latest Adobe AD0-E301 exam dumps and online practice questions? Geturnet updates Adobe Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “Campaign Standard Developer” AD0-E301 exam. You can find the free AD0-E301 pdf, AD0-E301 practice question online test, and our recommended https://www.lead4pass.com/ad0-e301.html brand site in Geturnet! Easy access to AD0-E301 exam dumps!
Latest Updates Adobe AD0-E301 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
During a business process, which activity would trigger an event transactional message? A. Create an event API and publish it. B. An external event matching the internal RT event name hits the Message Center Execution. C. Personalize the message, test it, and publish it. D. After a Workflow completes, the transactional message service is triggered.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is the Adobe-recommended method to authenticate to the Adobe SFTP servers? A. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using use ma me/password authentication B. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using OpenSSH key-based authentication C. Authentication from a blacklisted IP using SSH2 key-based authentication D. Authentication from a whitelisted IP using SSH1 key-based authentication
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What are the two possible ways of sharing reports? Choose two. A. Sending reports to Campaign users as a one-time email B. Sending Email proofs to Campaign users C. Sending reports to Campaign users on a recurring basis D. Sending reports to any valid email address Exporting and sharing PDF reports
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
In a multi-lingual email delivery template with three variants specified, how is the profile\’s language variant determined? A. By the profile\’s geographic location B. By the segment where the profile belongs C. By the default variant type in the content editor and the profile\’s preferred language D. By the profile\’s preferred language than by the default variant type in the content editor
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What are the two steps involved in creating a custom delivery template? Choose two. A. Create a template using the Create button B. Modify an out-of-the-box template C. Reference it in the delivery D. Configure the template E. Duplicate an existing template
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6
One of the feed files contains a column \’Optln flag\’ which has string values “Yes”, “No” and blank. But the destination column in the custom resource is defined as a Boolean. How do we insert the data into this specific column? A. Use value remapping to convert String to Boolean B. Have three different branches in the workflow so you can use hard-coded values C. Use an expression to convert String to Boolean D. Use the function to Boolean to convert the value
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Your client wants an automatic export of new logs every day. What is the correct sequence to achieve this? A. Incremental Query, Extract file, Transfer file B. Scheduler, Incremental Query, Transfer file. Extract file C. Incremental Query, Transfer file. Extract file D. Scheduler, Incremental Query, Extract file. Transfer file
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three components does an administrator use to restrict access? Choose three. A. Security groups B. Roles C. Organizational units D. Licenses E. Sys filters F. Named rights
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9
How would you solve the following error in the error log while importing a package? 1. 18/06/2018 10:13:36 The build of the (10481)package is more recent than the build of the (10477) instance. Please update your instance before importing this package. 2. 18/06/2018 10:13:36 At least one warning was raised during the analysis. The package was not imported. 3. 18/06/2018 10:13:36 SOP-330011 Error while executing the method \’InstallPackage\’ of service \’xtk:builder\’. A. Select the option “Allow import from a newer build”. B. Adapt the “install package” method in the “to builder” schema. C. Disable warnings for package imports under Administration > Deployment. D. Contact Adobe and request an update of the source instance to a newer version.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What three steps are needed to set up the double opt-in process? Choose three. A. Create a new recurring delivery. B. Set blacklist field of the Profile to false on double opt-in confirmation. C. Create a new transactional message. D. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Blacklist template or the Subscription template. E. Set blacklist field of the Profile to true on the double opt-in confirmation. F. Create a confirmation landing page based on the Profile acquisition template or the Subscription template
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 11
What does the package functionality allow you to do? A. It allows you to export only business data from one instance to another. B. It allows you to import and export business data and configuration data from one instance to another. C. It allows you to export only configuration data from one instance to another. D. It allows you to create a full back-up of the database without database access.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
A. Receiver port B. Receiver set C. Receiver account and password D. Encryption type E. Activation mode
Correct Answer: BC
Share lead4Pass Adobe AD0-E301 Discount codes for free 2020
Lead4Pass Reviews
Lead4Pass has about 10 years of exam experience! Helped many friends pass the Adobe exam! Lead4pass Year-round Update Exam guarantees up-to-date and effective! Highest pass rate! The highest price/performance ratio! Guaranteed first attempt to pass the exam!
Adobe AD0-E301 Exam Tips Summary:
Adobe AD0-E301 is already the ultimate help here, we share the latest exam pdf, the latest online exercise questions! And the brand website recommends “Lead4Pass”.
Where can I get the latest Salesforce CRT-450 exam dumps and online practice questions? Geturnet updates Salesforce Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “Certification Preparation for Platform Developer I” CRT-450 exam. You can find the free CRT-450 pdf, CRT-450 practice question online test, and our recommended https://www.lead4pass.com/crt-450.html brand site in Geturnet! Easy access to CRT-450 exam dumps!
When you complete this course, you will be able to:
Describe the structure of the exam and the exam’s objectives.
List the most heavily weighted exam objectives.
Describe key features of the Salesforce programming languages, including Apex, SOQL, SOSL, and Visualforce.
Explain important Salesforce concepts, such as the testing framework, governor limits, and the same order of execution.
Explain the ALM of a Salesforce development project.
Latest Updates Salesforce CRT-450 Exam Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1
What is the capability of a StandardSetController?Choose 2 answers A. It allows pages to perform mass updates of records B. It allows pages to perform pagination with large record sets C. It enforces field-level security when reading large record sets D. It extends the functionality of a standard or custom controller
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
From which two locations can a developer determine the overall code coverage for a sandbox? Choose two answers A. The Apex classes setup page B. The Test Suite Run panel the Developer Console C. The Test Tab of the Developer Console D. The Apex Test Execution page
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Which component is available to deploy using Metadata API? Choose 2 answers A. Case Layout B. Account Layout C. Case Feed Layout D. ConsoleLayout
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 4
A platform developer needs to write an apex method that will only perform an action if a record is assigned to a specific record type. Which two options allow the developer to dynamically determine the ID of the required record type by its name? Choose 2 answers A. Use the getrecordtypeinfosbydevelopername() method in the describesobjectresult class B. Make an outbound web services call to the SOAP API C. Execute a SOQL query on the recordtype object D. Hardcore the ID as a constant in an apex class
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
A developer creates a method in an Apex class and needs to ensure that errors are handled properly. What would the developer use? (There are three correct answers.) A. ApexPages.addErrorMessage() B. A custom exception C. .addError() D. Database.handleException() E. A try/catch construct
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 6
A developer has the controller class below.
Which code block will run successfully in an execute anonymous window? A. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop !=null); B. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==0); C. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==null); D. myFooController m = new myFooController();System.assert(m.prop ==1);
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is the result of the following code block? Integer x = 1;Integer Y = 0;While(x A. An error occurs B. Y = 9 C. Y = 10 D. X = 0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What should a developer work in a sandbox use to exercise a new test Class before the developer deploys that test production?Choose 2 answers A. The REST API and ApexTestRun method B. The Apex Test Execution page in Salesforce Setup. C. The Test menu in the Developer Console. D. The Run Tests page in Salesforce Setup.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
A developer wants to list all of the Tasks for each Account on the Account detail page. When a task is created for a Contact, what does the developer need to do to display the Task on the related Account record? A. Nothing. The task is automatically displayed on the Account page. B. Nothing. The Task cannot be related to an Account and a Contact. C. Create a Workflow rule to relate the Task to the Contact\’s Account. D. Create an Account formula field that displays the Task information.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which two Apex data types can be used to reference a Salesforce record ID dynamically? (Choose two.) A. ENUM B. sObject C. External ID D. String
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 11
What actions types should be configured to display a custom success message? A. Update a record. B. Post a feed item. C. Delete a record. D. Close a case.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
An Account trigger updates all related Contacts and Cases each time an Account is saved using the following two DML statements: update allContacts; update allCases; What is the result if the Case update exceeds the governor limit for maximum number of DML records? A. The Account save succeeds, Contacts are updated, but Cases are not. B. The Account save fails and no Contacts or Cases are updated C. The Account save is retried using a smaller trigger batch size. D. The Account save succeeds and no Contacts or Cases are updated
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which tool allows a developer to send requests to the Salesforce REST APIs and view the responses? A. REST resource path URL B. Workbench REST Explorer C. Developer Console REST tab D. Force.com IDE REST Explorer tab
Correct Answer: B
Share lead4Pass Salesforce CRT-450 Discount codes for free 2020
Lead4Pass Reviews
Lead4Pass has about 10 years of exam experience! Helped many friends pass the Salesforce exam! Lead4pass Year-round Update Exam guarantees up-to-date and effective! Highest pass rate! The highest price/performance ratio! Guaranteed first attempt to pass the exam!
Salesforce CRT-450 Exam Tips Summary:
Salesforce CRT-450 is already the ultimate help here, we share the latest exam pdf, the latest online exercise questions! And the brand website recommends “Lead4Pass”.
What is the best way to pass the VMware VCP7-CMA 2V0-731 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass VMware expert.) You can get free VMware 2V0-731 exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/2v0-731.html (pdf + vce) Study hard to pass the exam easily!
This exam tests your skills and abilities installing, configuring and administering a VMware vRealize® environment.
Section 1: Create and Modify vRealize Automation Blueprints
Section 2: Configure and Manage Tenants and Business Groups
Section 3: Install and Configure vRealize Automation and Related Components
Section 4: Configure and Manage the vRealize Automation Catalog
Section 5: Configure and Administer Fabric Groups and Endpoints
Section 6: Extend a vRealize Automation Implementation
Latest updates VMware 2V0-731 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1
When creating an XaaS blueprint that includes the workflow to create a custom vSphere virtual machine, which field
does an administrator add to present descriptive text to the consumer of the resource?
A. The Integer field element from the New fields list
B. The Text field element from the New fields list
C. The Text element from the Form list
D. The Label header element from the Form list
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A vRealize Automation Tenant Administrator has identified a tenant virtual machine with low CPU and memory
utilization. The owner has been given 5 days to respond to the reclamation request. The new virtual machine lease is
set to 1 day and the blueprint used to build the virtual machine has an archive period of 7 days.
How many days will elapse before the virtual machine is destroyed and the user fails to respond?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 13
D. 6
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 How does a reservation with a priority of 1 impact the environment? A. The business group assigned this reservation will have preferred access to the compute resources over other business groups with a priority greater than 1. B. If a business group has multiple reservations, other reservations will be chosen over this reservation for business groups with a priority greater than 1. C. The business group assigned this reservation will have less than preferred access to the compute resources compared to other business groups with a priority greater than 1. D. If a business group has multiple reservations, this reservation will be chosen over all other reservations for business groups with a priority greater than 1. Correct Answer: D Reference: The priority field is used if you are going to create multiple reservations for the same reservation policy. For example, if we had two, the second one we create would have a priority of 2. When a user tries to provision a virtual machine from the catalog it will use the lowest priority unless it is not available any longer then move to alternate resources Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-62/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vra.iaas.virtual.doc%2FGUID-3EEAAFCC-2080-4925-84E7-CAFF3D9FF3F3.html
QUESTION 6 Which two areas of the vRealize Automation User Interface could a Fabric Administrator examine to determine current consumption of computing and storage resources? (Choose two.) A. Infrastructure > Compute Resources B. Infrastructure > Reservation Policies C. Home D. Administration > Business Groups Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which three options are valid buttons available under the Schema tab in the vRealize Orchestrator workflow editor?
(Choose three.)
A. Edit
B. Run
C. Delete
D. Validate
E. Debug
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9 An approval policy has been created for use with a catalog item named CentOSWeb. The item is assigned to the Linux servers service which is included in the current entitlement. The approval policy should NOT be triggered for any of the other current or future items in the Linux servers service. Which three steps would assign the approval policy to the CentOSWeb item and produce the minimum number of entitlements? (Choose three.) A. Create a new entitlement. B. Confirm that the entitlement is active. C. Add the CentOSWeb item to the entitlement under Entitled Items. D. Add the approval policy to the CentOSWeb item. E. Add the LinuxServers service under Entitled Services. Correct Answer: BCD Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vrealize.automation.doc%2FGUID-52E0EB4A-6CBE-470C-A480-4939499D3E37.html
QUESTION 10 The vRealize Orchestrator Server Configuration for XaaS activity needs to be pointed to an external server for all current and future tenants. The default server configuration is currently in use. Which two options accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Log into the default tenant as a system administrator. B. Configure the external vRO connection under the Infrastructure tab. C. Log into the default tenant as a tenant administrator. D. Configure the external vRO connection under the Administration tab. Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vra-70/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vrealize.automation.doc%2FGUID-CA258813-2F3D-4DB2-9A2A-BC2A9FC633F5.html
QUESTION 11 Which two areas of the vRealize Automation UI could a Fabric Administrator look to determine how many virtual machines have been provisioned by a specific user along with their aggregate allocated memory and storage totals? (Choose two.) A. Infrastructure > Managed Machines B. Home C. Infrastructure > Reservations D. Infrastructure > Compute Resources Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12 A Business Group Manager, with no additional entitlements, wants to find his business group\’s virtual machines along with allocated storage and memory totals to help determine the remaining reserve capacity. In which two areas of the vRealize Automation UI could this information be found? (Choose two.) A. Home B. Administration > Business Groups C. Business Management D. Infrastructure > Business Groups Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.2/vrealize-automation-72-management.pdf
Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from VMware, Cisco, CompTIA, VMware, EMC, etc. We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader! Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!
Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the VMware 2V0-731 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/2v0-731.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
What is the best way to pass the Microsoft az-400 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft az-400 exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/az-400.html (pdf + vce) Study hard to pass the exam easily!
Candidates for this exam are DevOps professionals who combine people, processes, and technologies to continuously deliver valuable products and services that meet end-user needs and business objectives. DevOps professionals streamline delivery by optimizing practices, improving communications and collaboration, and creating automation. They design and implement strategies for application code and infrastructure that allow for continuous integration, testing, delivery, monitoring, and feedback.
Candidates must be proficient with Agile practices. They must be familiar with both Azure administration and Azure development and experts in at least one of these areas. Azure DevOps professionals must be able to design and implement DevOps practices for version control, compliance, infrastructure as code, configuration management, build, release, and testing by using Azure technologies.
Latest updates Microsoft az-400 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You have a multi-tier application that has an Azure Web Apps front end and an Azure SQL Database back end. You need to recommend a solution to capture and store telemetry data. The solution must meet the following requirements: Support using ad-hoc queries to identify baselines. Trigger alerts when metrics in the baseline are exceeded. Store application and database metrics in a central location. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Azure Event Hubs B. Azure SQL Database Intelligent Insights C. Azure Application Insights D. Azure Log Analytics Correct Answer: D Azure Platform as a Service (PaaS) resources, like Azure SQL and Web Sites (Web Apps), can emit performance metrics data natively to Log Analytics. The Premium plan will retain up to 12 months of data, giving you an excellent baseline ability. There are two options available in the Azure portal for analyzing data stored in Log analytics and for creating queries for ad hoc analysis. Incorrect Answers: B: Intelligent Insights analyzes database performance by comparing the database workload from the last hour with the past seven-day baseline workload. However, we need to handle application metrics as well. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/collect-azurepass-posh
QUESTION 2 DRAG DROP You need to recommend project metrics for dashboards in Azure DevOps. Which chart widgets should you recommend for each metric? To answer, drag the appropriate chart widgets to the correct metrics. Each chart widget may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
QUESTION 3 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You integrate a cloud-hosted Jenkins server and a new Azure DevOps deployment. You need Azure DevOps to send a notification to Jenkins when a developer commits changes to a branch in Azure Repos. Solution: You create an email subscription to an Azure DevOps notification. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You can create a service hook for Azure DevOps Services and TFS with Jenkins. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/service-hooks/services/jenkins
QUESTION 4 DRAG DROP You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) implementation that is RBAC-enabled. You plan to use Azure Container Instances as a hosted development environment to run containers in the AKS implementation. You need to configure Azure Container Instances as a hosted environment for running the containers in AKS. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Create a YAML file. If your AKS cluster is RBAC-enabled, you must create a service account and role binding for use with Tiller. To create a service account and role binding, create a file named RBAC-virtual-kubelet.YAML Step 2: Run kubectl apply. Apply the service account and binding with kubectl apply and specify your RBAC-virtual-kubelet.YAML file. Step 3: Run helm init. Configure Helm to use the tiller service account: helm init –service-account tiller You can now continue to install the Virtual Kubelet into your AKS cluster. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/virtual-kubelet
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP Your company wants to use Azure Application Insights to understand how user behaviors affect an application. Which application Insights tool should you use to analyze each behavior? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct behaviors. Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: User Flows The User Flows tool visualizes how users navigate between the pages and features of your site. It\’s great for answering questions like: How do users navigate away from a page on your site? What do users click on a page on your site? Where are the places that users churn most from your site? Are there places where users repeat the same action over and over? Box 2: Users Box 3: Impact Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/usage-flows
QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
How should you complete the code to initialize App Center in the mobile application? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Scenario: Visual Studio App Center must be used to centralize the reporting of mobile application crashes and device types in use. In order to use App Center, you need to opt into the service(s) that you want to use, meaning by default no services are started and you will have to explicitly call each of them when starting the SDK. Insert the following line to start the SDK in your app\’s AppDelegate class in the didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method. MSAppCenter.start(“{Your App Secret}”, withServices: [MSAnalytics.self, MSCrashes.self]) References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/appcenter/sdk/getting-started/ios
QUESTION 7 During a code review, you discover many quality issues. Many modules contain unused variables and empty catch blocks. You need to recommend a solution to improve the quality of the code. What should you recommend? A. In a Grunt build task, select Enabled from Control Options. B. In a Maven build task, select Run PMD. C. In an Xcode build task, select Use pretty from Advanced. D. In a Gradle build task, select Run Checkstyle. Correct Answer: B PMD is a source code analyzer. It finds common programming flaws like unused variables, empty catch blocks, unnecessary object creation, and so forth. There is an Apache Maven PMD Plugin that allows you to automatically run the PMD code analysis tool on your project\’s source code and generate a site report with its results. Incorrect Answers: C: pretty is a fast and flexible formatter for xcodebuild. References: https://pmd.github.io/
QUESTION 8 HOTSPOT You have a project in Azure DevOps. You plan to create a build pipeline that will deploy resources by using Azure Resource Manager templates. The templates will reference secrets stored in the Azure Key Vault. You need to ensure that you can dynamically generate the resource ID of the key vault during template deployment. What should you include in the template? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: “Microsoft.Resources/deployments” Reference a secret with a dynamic ID. You need to reference a key vault secret that varies based on the current deployment. Example: “resources”: [ { “apiVersion”: “2018-05-01”, “name”: “dynamicSecret”, “type”: “Microsoft.Resources/deployments”, “properties”: { “mode”: “Incremental”, “templateLink”: { Box 2: “templateLink” In your parent template, you add the linked template and pass in a parameter that contains the dynamically generated resource ID. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-manager-keyvault-parameter
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You need to implement the code flow strategy for Project2 in Azure DevOps. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Step 1: Create a repository A Git repository, or repo, is a folder that you\’ve told Git to help you track file changes in. You can have any number of reports on your computer, each stored in their own folder. Step 2: Create a branch Branch policies help teams protect their important branches of development. Policies enforce your team\’s code quality and change management standards. Step 3: Add a build validation policy When a build validation policy is enabled, a new build is queued when a new pull request is created or when changes are pushed to an existing pull request targeting this branch. The build policy then evaluates the results of the build to determine whether the pull request can be completed. Scenario: Implement a code flow strategy for Project2 that will: Enable Team2 to submit pull requests for Project2. Enable Team2 to work independently on changes to a copy of Project2. Ensure that any intermediary changes performed by Team2 on a copy of Project2 will be subject to the same restrictions as the ones defined in the building policy of Project2. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/manage-your-branches
QUESTION 10 Your company creates a web application. You need to recommend a solution that automatically sends to Microsoft Teams a daily summary of the exceptions that occur in the application. Which two Azure services should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Azure Logic Apps B. Azure Pipelines C. Microsoft Visual Studio App Center D. Azure DevOps Project E. Azure Application Insights Correct Answer: AE E: Exceptions in your live web app are reported by Application Insights. Note: Periodical reports help keep a team informed on how their business-critical services are doing. Developers, DevOps/SRE teams and their managers can be productive with automated reports reliably delivering insights without requiring everyone to sign in the portal. Such reports can also help identify gradual increases in latencies, load or failure rates that may not trigger any alert rules. A: You can programmatically query Application Insights data to generate custom reports on a schedule. The following options can help you get started quickly: Automate reports with Microsoft Flow Automate reports with Logic Apps References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/asp-net-exceptions https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/automate-custom-reports
QUESTION 11
Your company develops a client banking application that processes a large volume of data;
Code quality is an ongoing issue for the company. Recently, the code quality has deteriorated because of an increase in
time pressure on the development team.
You need to implement static code analysis.
During which phase should you use static code analysis?
A. build
B. production release
C. staging
D. integration testing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Your company plans to deploy an application to the following endpoints:
Ten virtual machines hosted in Azure
Ten virtual machines hosted in an on-premises data center environment All the virtual machines have the Azure Pipelines agent. You need to implement a release strategy for deploying the application to the endpoints. What should you recommend using to deploy the application to the endpoints? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct endpoints. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: A deployment group When authoring an Azure Pipelines or TFS Release pipeline, you can specify the deployment targets for a job using a deployment group. If the target machines are Azure VMs, you can quickly and easily prepare them by installing the Azure Pipelines Agent Azure VM extension on each of the VMs, or by using the Azure Resource Group Deployment task in your release pipeline to create a deployment group dynamically. Box 2: A deployment group References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/deployment-groups
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You integrate a cloud-hosted Jenkins server and a new Azure DevOps deployment. You need Azure DevOps to send a notification to Jenkins when a developer commits changes to a branch in Azure Repos. Solution: You create a service hook subscription that uses the code pushed event. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A You can create a service hook for Azure DevOps Services and TFS with Jenkins. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/service-hooks/services/jenkins
Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from Microsoft, Cisco, CompTIA, IBM, EMC, etc. We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader! Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!
Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the Microsoft az-400 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/az-400.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
With the help of latest and authentic Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps exam questions, you can find the best 300-115 exam preparation kit from lead4pass. “Microsoft Dynamics 365 customer engagement Online Deployment” is the name of Microsoft Dynamics 365 https://www.lead4pass.com/mb2-715.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Get the 100% guarantee for passing the Microsoft MB2-715 exam.
High quality Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps pdf training resources and study guides download free try from lead4pass. Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary MB2-715 questions that you need to know. Get Cisco Microsoft Dynamics 365 certification by passing exam MB2-715 then you can pass it in one go.
New Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q20)
QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions. MB2-715 dumps
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?
A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You are a network administrator for a company that is preparing for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
Your users use both Windows and Mac laptops. Management wants users to be able to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Out.ook.
What is a requirement for the Office for Mac users?
A. They must use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
B. They must have the Opera Web Browser installed.
C. They must have Google Chrome installed.
D. They must have the latest Firefox installed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
You are a system administrator for an organization that relies solely on an ISV solution for Microsoft Dynamics 365. MB2-715 dumps
Your instances are scheduled to be updated.
What are two approaches for this update? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Test the update in your sandbox environments prior to updating production.
B. Contact your ISV provider, and follow their recommendation for this update.
C. Update production. With an ISV solution, there is no need to go through a test process.
D. Import the updated version of the ISV solution prior to the update of your instance.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 19
Microsoft Dynamics 36b and Skype for Business are implemented at your company.
You recently became system administrator, and you notice that the Skype for Business presence is not displaying in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to resolve this issue?
A. Enable country/region code prefixing.
B. Select the provider for Click-to-Call.
C. Change user settings for the security roles.
D. Enable presence for the system.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Your organization has decided to take advantage of the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook App.
What should you do to ensure the app is automatically added to the Outlook account of all eligible users?
A. Use Group Policy in Active Directory and automatically install the app for the eligible users.
B. In Microsoft Dynamics 365 Settings > Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, add the app to all eligible users.
C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365f go to App Source, search for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook, and install it from App Source.
D. Assign all eligible users proper privileges to use the app in Microsoft Dynamics 365 and instruct them where to download and install the app.
Correct Answer: C
The Following Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:
Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Other brands appeared early, the Microsoft MB2-715 dumps exam questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.
The best and most updated latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps exam practice files in PDF format free download from lead4pass. Helpful newest Microsoft Dynamics 365 https://www.lead4pass.com/mb2-715.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing MB2-715 exam test, and to get certified by Microsoft Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Useful Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-715 dumps vce youtube:
100% pass guarantee with latest Oracle Java and Middleware 1Z0-803 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube free update. Lead4pass offers best Oracle 1Z0-803 dumps exam questions and answers free try. https://www.lead4pass.com/1z0-803.html dumps exam practice files. High quality Oracle 1Z0-803 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, pass Oracle 1Z0-803 exam test easily at first attempt.
Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Java and Middleware
Exam Name: Java SE 7 Programmer I
Exam Code: 1Z0-803
Total Questions: 216 Q&As
QUESTION 1
A method doSomething () that has no exception handling code is modified to trail a method that throws a checked exception. Which two modifications, made independently, will allow the program to compile?
A. Catch the exception in the method doSomething().
B. Declare the exception to be thrown in the doSomething() method signature.
C. Cast the exception to a RunTimeException in the doSomething() method.
D. Catch the exception in the method that calls doSomething().
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2
Given:
Which statement, when inserted into line 5, is valid change?
A. asc = sc;
B. sc = asc;
C. asc = (object) sc;
D. asc = sc.clone ()
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Given a java source file:
What changes will make this code compile? 1Z0-803 dumps (Select Two)
A. Adding the public modifier to the declaration of class x
B. Adding the protected modifier to the x() constructor
C. Changing the private modifier on the declaration of the one() method to protected
D. Removing the Y () constructor
E. Removing the private modifier from the two () method
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
Given the code fragment:
String h1 = “Bob”;
String h2 = new String (“Bob”);
What is the best way to test that the values of h1 and h2 are the same?
A. if (h1 = = h2)
B. if (h1.equals(h2))
C. if (h1 = = h2)
D. if (h1.same(h2))
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which two are valid declarations of a two-dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array2D;
B. int [2] [2] array2D;
C. int array2D [];
D. int [] array2D [];
E. int [] [] array2D [];
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6
Which code fragment is illegal?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which two may precede the word `class’ in a class declaration?
A. local
B. public
C. static
D. volatile
E. synchronized
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
Which three are bad practices? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception when iterating through an array to determine when all elements have been visited
B. Checking for Error and. If necessary, restarting the program to ensure that users are unaware problems
C. Checking for File Not Found Exception to inform a user that a filename entered is not valid
D. Checking for Array Index out of Bounds Exception and ensuring that the program can recover if one occur
E. Checking for an IOException and ensuring that the program can recover if one occurs
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 9
Given:
What is the result?
A. There is no output
B. d is output
C. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
D. An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
E. A NullPointException is thrown at runtime
F. A StringArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Given:
What three modifications, made independently, made to class greet, enable the code to compile and run?
A. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.keystroke stroke = new KeyStroke ( );
B. line 6 replaced with handy.*.KeyStroke = new KeyStroke ( );
C. line 6 replaced with handy.dandy.KeyStroke Stroke = new handy.dandy.KeyStroke();
D. import handy.*; added before line 1
E. import handy.dandy.*; added after line 1
F. import handy.dandy,KeyStroke; added after line 1
G. import handy.dandy.KeyStroke.typeException(); added before line 1
Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 11
Which three are advantages of the Java exception mechanism? 1Z0-803 dumps
A. Improves the program structure because the error handling code is separated from the normal program function
B. Provides a set of standard exceptions that covers all the possible errors
C. Improves the program structure because the programmer can choose where to handle exceptions
D. Improves the program structure because exceptions must be handled in the method in which they occurred
E. allows the creation of new exceptions that are tailored to the particular program being
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 12
A method is declared to take three arguments. A program calls this method and passes only two arguments. What is the result?
A. Compilation fails.
B. The third argument is given the value null.
C. The third argument is given the value void.
D. The third argument is given the value zero.
E. The third argument is given the appropriate false value for its declared type.
F. An exception occurs when the method attempts to access the third argument.
Correct Answer: A
Where can I find free braindumps for exam CV0-002? Geturnet shares the latest and effective CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative CompTIA exam experts update CV0-002 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full CV0-002 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/cv0-002.html (342 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations.
It assumes a candidate will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a variety of different industries.
It includes new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission-critical systems, now that hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm.
Latest updates CompTIA CV0-002 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 A cloud administrator configures a new web server for the site https://companyname.com. The administrator installs a wildcard SSL certificate for *.companyname.com. When users attempt to access the site, a certificate error is received. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. Certificate misconfigured B. Certificate expired C. Certificate revoked D. Certificate not signed Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following will use ICMP to successively check hops between the source and destination? A. traceroute B. netstat C. dig D. route Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A system administrator has been monitoring cloud infrastructure usage over a period of time. The administrator notices that several hosts are consistently running close to capacity during work hours. To balance the workload across more hosts the administrator performs a virtual resource migration. Which of the following terms BEST describes the reason the administrator performed this action? A. Mobility B. Utilization C. Availability D. Migration Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following may be used to increase data confidentiality when encryption is not an option? A. LUN masking B. Zoning C. Hashing D. Obfuscation Correct Answer: D “To prevent hackers from disassembling data, one of the processes used is obfuscation, which is data scrambling. Data is purposely scrambled, which renders it unreadable until the obfuscation process is reversed.”
QUESTION 5 Which of the following will be the BEST option for an administrator to bring VMs online at a warm site after a natural disaster has occurred at the primary site? A. Kick off a full backup B. Request offsite backup tapes C. Confirm enterprise tape library is functional D. Verify replication is enabled Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which of the following does the administrator use to consolidate all the VMs into a single IP while allowing access to the Internet? A. DNS B. VLAN C. NAT D. DHCP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 The system administrator created a file sharing service to the cloud for easier access for those working remotely. Which of the following tests should be performed to determine if services can be compromised? A. Test storage B. Test latency C. Vulnerability assessment D. Penetration testing Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 A cloud solution provider offers services solely to the healthcare industry which meets specific security and government regulations. This is an example of which of the following cloud types? A. Public B. Hybrid C. Private D. Community Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 An administrator needs to monitor server applications in the company\\’s data center. Which of the following tools would the administrator need to accomplish this objective? A. SMS B. SMTP C. IPMI D. SNMP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 A cloud administrator is integrating account logins with Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter for marketing and to increase market presence using social media platforms. Given this scenario, which of the following components are needed to match these requirements? (Select TWO). A. SOAP B. SAML assertion C. Security token D. Identity provider E. Session state Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11 Which of the following is a hardening technique that an administrator would perform when creating a standard VM template that would be used for deploying servers in a production environment? A. Create a standard user account B. Disable unneeded services C. Establish a performance baseline D. Follow change management process Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator run to determine where the connection failure occurs? A. nslookup B. traceroute C. telnet D. netstat Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?
A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity. B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity. C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity. D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity. Correct Answer: D
Lead4pass employs the most authoritative exam specialists from CompTIA, Microsoft, Cisco, Oracle, Huawei, etc. We update exam data throughout the year. Highest pass rate! We have a large user base. We are an industry leader! Choose Lead4Pass to pass the exam with ease!
Summarize:
It’s not easy to pass the CompTIA CV0-002 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. https://www.lead4pass.com/cv0-002.html provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.
Share real and effective Microsoft Azure AZ-301 exam dumps for free. 13 Online AZ-301 Exam Practice test questions and answers, online AZ-301 pdf download and YouTube video learning, easy to learn! Get the full AZ-301 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/az-301.html (Total Questions: 108 Q&A) to make it easy to pass the exam!
Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.
Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-301 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Your company has an on-premises Windows HPC cluster. The cluster runs an intrinsically parallel, compute-intensive workload that performs financial risk modelling. You plan to migrate the workload to Azure Batch. You need to design a solution that will support the workload. The solution must meet the following requirements: Support the large-scale parallel execution of Azure Batch jobs. Minimize cost. What should you include in the solution? A. Basic A-series virtual machines B. low-priority virtual machines C. burstable virtual machines D. Azure virtual machine sizes that support the Message Passing Interface (MPI) API Correct Answer: B Explanation: References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/batch/batch-technical-overview
QUESTION 2 You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage. You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs. You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA) B. Azure Data Factory C. Data Migration Assistant D. AzCopy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure. B. Use SQLServer transactional replication. C. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database file to Azure Blob storage. D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 You have .NeT web service named service1 that has the following requirements. Must read and write to the local file system. Must write to the Windows Application event log. You need to recommend a solution to host Service1 in Azure . The solution must meet the following requirements: Minimize maintenance overhead. Minimize costs. What should you include in the recommendation? A. an Azure web app B. Azure function C. an App service Environment D. an Azure virtual machine scale set Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 You plan to create an Azure Cosmos DB account that uses the SQL API. The account will contain data added by a web application. The web application will send data daily. You need to recommend a notification solution that meets the following requirements: Sends email notification when data is received from IoT devices. Minimizes compute cost. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Deploy an Azure logic app that has the Azure Cosmos DB connector configured to use a SendGrid action. B. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and a SendGrid binding. C. Deploy an Azure logic app that has a SendGrid connector configured to use an Azure Cosmos DB action. D. Deploy a function app that is configured to use the Consumption plan and an Azure Event Hubs binding. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendations? A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE) C. Azure Storage Service Encryption D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You plan to use Azure Site Recovery to protect several on-premises physical server workloads. Each server workload is independent of the other. The workloads are stateless. You need to recommend a failover strategy to ensure that if the on-premises data center fails, the workloads are available in Azure as quickly as possible. Which failover strategy should you include in the recommendation? A. Latest B. Latest app-consistent C. Latest multi-VM processed D. Latest processed Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/site-recovery-failover
QUESTION 8 You have an Azure Contoso DB account named Account1 that has one write region and four read regions. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that, by default, any reads containers in Account1 will never see out writes. The solution must minimize costs. What should you recommend? A. Configure Account1 to use the Strong consistency level. B. Create all the containers m Account1 as fixed. C. Create all the containers m Account1 as unlimited. D. Configure Account 1 to use the Consistent Prefix consistency level Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the following requirements: Provide access to the full .NET framework. Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails. Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies. Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Project1. Only a group named Project1admins is assigned roles in the Project1 subscription. The Project1 subscription contains all the resources for an application named Application1. Your company is developing a new application named Application2. The members of the Application2 development team belong to an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) group named App2Dev. You identify the following requirements for Application2: The members of App2Dev must be prevented from changing the role assignments in Azure. The members of App2Dev must be able to create new Azure resources required by Application2. All the required role assignments for Application2 will be performed by the members of Project1admins. You need to recommend a solution for the role assignments of Application2. Solution: In Project1, create a resource group named Application2RG. Assign Project1admins the Owner role for Application2RG. Assign App2Dev the Contributor role for Application2RG. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 You are designing an Azure solution for a company that wants to move a .NET Core web application an on-premises data center to Azure. The web application relies on a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database on Windows Server 2016. The database server will not move to Azure. A separate networking team is responsible for configuring network permissions. The company uses Azure ExpressRoute and has an ExpressRoute gateway connected to an Azure virtual network named VNET1. You need to recommend a solution for deploying the web application. Solution: Deploy the web application to a web app hosted in a Premium App Service plan. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 You need to recommend a solution for implementing the back-end tier of the payment processing system in Azure. What should you include in the recommendation? A. an Azure SQL Database managed instance B. a SQL Server database on an Azure virtual machine C. an Azure SQL Database single database D. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes? A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure. B. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure. C. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects. D. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure. Correct Answer: B Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a link failure between Azure and the onpremises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on- premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain controllers on-premises)
Share 13 of the latest Microsoft Azure AZ-301 exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills and experience! Easily select the complete AZ-301 Dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/az-301.html (Total Questions: 108 Q&A) through the exam! Guaranteed to be true and effective! Easily pass the exam!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: determine workload requirements; design for identity and security; design a data platform solution; design a business continuity strategy; design for deployment, migration, and integration; and design an infrastructure strategy.
Candidates for this exam have fundamental knowledge of Windows devices and mobility. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows devices, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, antimalware products, firewalls, network topologies and devices, and network ports.
The best and most updated latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 dumps exam training resources in PDF format download free try from lead4pass. Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared. “CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1” is the name of CompTIA Linux+ https://www.lead4pass.com/lx0-101.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real CompTIA exam. Lead4pass is the best site for providing online preparation material for LX0-101 exam. Get your CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 dumps exam preparation questions in form of LX0-101 PDF.
Practice for your CompTIA LX0-101 exam with the help of lead4pass. If you are looking to get CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1 certification by passing exam LX0-101 then you can pass it in one go. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.
Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)
QUESTION 1
Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG
QUESTION 3
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal bootup sequence? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: dmesg /bin/dmesg
QUESTION 5
What file contains kernel level logging information such as output from a network driver module when it is loaded? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /VAR/LOG/KERN.LOG,/VAR/LOG/MESSAGES,KERN.LOG,MESSAGES
QUESTION 6
What file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/CMDLINE,CMDLINE
QUESTION 7
Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
What command is used to display a file in octal format? LX0-101 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/HEXDUMP,/USR/BIN/OD,HEXDUMP,OD
QUESTION 9
To change the priority of a running process, an administrator should use the command. (Specify command only with no options.)
Correct Answer: /USR/BIN/RENICE,RENICE
QUESTION 10
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What is the name of the main configuration file for GRUB? (Please specify the file name with no path information).
Correct Answer: GRUB.CFG,GRUB.CONF,MENU.LST
QUESTION 12
An administrator wants the default permissions for their files to be -rw-r—–. How must the administrator set umask?
A. 037
B. 640
C. 038
D. 027
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
An administrator is writing text in vi. Now the administrator wants to save their changes and exit. Which of the following sequence of inputs will accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands will print a list of usernames (first column) and their corresponding user id (uid, third column) from /etc/passwd?
A. cut -d: -f1,3 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,3 /etc/passwd
C. tac 1-3 /etc/passwd
D. fmt -u /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The /etc/ file lists currently mounted devices.
Correct Answer: MTAB
QUESTION 18
Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP
QUESTION 20
The priority of any process can range from -20 to . LX0-101 dumps (Provide only the numerical value).
Correct Answer: +19,19
QUESTION 21
Which of the following is true when hard-linked files are present?
A. The output of stat will report “hard” instead of “regular file”
B. The hard-linked files may not be empty
C. Both files will share the same inode
D. Issuing a long directory listing with ls -l will indicate the link with “->”
E. The file permissions will be prefixed by an “h”, eg. hrwxr-x-r-x
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
/dev/sda3 will create a swap area on the device /dev/sda3.
Correct Answer: /SBIN/MKSWAP,MKSWAP
QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
C. /bin/grep #$ foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
Which of the following does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts the floppy disk for all users.
B. It shows all mounted file systems.
C. It opens /etc/fstab to edit.
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
Which of the following commands will show the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf –
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf –
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
An administrator suspects that a new Ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should the administrator check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drivers? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: /PROC/INTERRUPTS,INTERRUPTS
QUESTION 30
Which of the following commands can be used to instruct the init process to switch runlevels? (Select TWO).
A. telinit
B. initctl
C. init
D. reinit
E. runlevel
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 31
All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/runme.sh EXCEPT:
A. source /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
B. . /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
D. /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
E. run /usr/local/bin/runme.sh
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. LX0-101 dumps The administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following commands is run LAST during boot on a system with quotas enabled?
A. fsck
B. mount
C. quotacheck
D. quotaon
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
An administrator has read/write permissions on an ordinary file foo. The administrator has just run ln foo bar. Which of the following would occur if the administrator ran rm foo?
A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. The administrator would be asked whether bar should be removed.
Correct Answer: B
Lead4pass is the best provider of IT learning materials and the right choice for you to prepare for CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 exam. Other brands started earlier, but the price is relatively expensive and the questions are not the newest. Lead4pass provide the latest real questions and answers with lowest prices, help you pass CompTIA LX0-101 exam easily at first try.
It is the best choice for you to pass CompTIA LX0-101 exam. Get the newest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. High quality CompTIA Linux+ https://www.lead4pass.com/lx0-101.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing LX0-101 exam test, and to get certified by CompTIA Linux+. 100% success and guarantee to pass CompTIA LX0-101 exam.
