Category Archives: Cisco

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-075 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

The best and most updated CCNP Collaboration 300-075 training materials, high quality Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 training materials. Latest Cisco 300-075 dumps exam training material in PDF format, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice.
However, devices outside cannot register.
Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D
300-075
Question No : 2
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?      300-075 dumps
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Company X has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster and a VCS Control server with video endpoints registered on both systems. Users find that video endpoints registered on Call manager can call each other and likewise for the endpoints registered on the VCS server. The administrator for Company X realizes he needs a SIP trunk between the two systems for any video endpoint to call any other video endpoint. Which two steps must the administrator take to add the SIP trunk? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a SIP trunk on Cisco UCM with the option Device-Trunk with destination address of the VCS server.
B. Set up a subzone on Cisco UCM with the peer address to the VCS cluster.
C. Set up a neighbor zone on the VCS server with the location of Cisco UCM using the menu option VCS Configuration > Zones > zone.
D. Set up a SIP trunk on the VCS server with the destination address of the Cisco UCM and Transport set to TCP.
E. Set up a traversal subzone on the VCS server to allow endpoints that are registered on Cisco UCM to communicate.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 4
Which solution is needed to enable presence and extension mobility to branch office phones during a WAN failure?
A. SRST without MGCP fallback
B. SRST with VoIP dial peers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. SRST with MGCP fallback
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Answer: C

Question No : 5
When video endpoints register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, where are DSCP values configured?
A. in Unified CM, under Enterprise Parameters Configuration
B. in Unified CM, under Device > Device Settings > Device Defaults
C. in Unified CM, under Service Parameters > Cisco CallManager Service > Cluster-wide Parameters
D. DSCP parameters are always configured on each individual video endpoint.
Answer: C

Question No : 6
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco 300-075 dumps TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Answer: A,C,E

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-075.html

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ciptv2.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

The best and most updated CCNP Collaboration 300-070 training materials, we also want you to be able to access them easily, 300-070 exam training material in PDF format, http://www.lead4pass.com/300-070.html high quality Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 training materials, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Question No : 1
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN.
To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? Cisco 300-070 dumps exam questions
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Answer: E

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070
An engineer is trying to determine the status of the ISDN D Channel on a new PRI circuit, types in the show isdn status command, and sees this output.  300-070 dumps   Which two pieces of information can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)
A. The provider is using the 5ESS protocol.
B. There are four channels.
C. The connection to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager has been established.
D. The D channel is working correctly.
E. No active calls are established.
Answer: D,E

Question No : 3
What is the default option for framing when you configure T1 controller?
A. Super Frame
B. alternate mark inversion
C. C.Extended Super Frame
D. D.cyclic redundancy check 4
E. E.high-density bipolar 3
F. F.No-CRC4
G. G.binary 8-zero substitution
H. Australia
Answer: C,D

Question No : 4
Which two algorithms are valid to distribute calls in a route group? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast
B. circular
C. top-down
D. bottom-up
E. round-robin
Answer: B,C

Question No : 5
Where do you configure the region for a group of devices?
A. Common device profile.
B. Device defaults.
C. Common device configuration.
D. Common phone profile.
E. Device pool.
Answer: E

Question No : 6
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Answer: A

Question No : 7
What are two characteristics of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager dial plan? (Choose two.)
A. partitions and calling search spaces
B. COR
C. dial peers
D. voice translation rules
E. route patterns
Answer: A,E

Question No : 8
An engineer is setting up a system with voice and video endpoints using auto-QoS policy on the switches. Which DSCP values are expected for interactive voice and video?  300-070 dumps
A. F and AF-41
B. EF and CS6
C. EF and CS3
D. EF and AF21
Answer: A

Question No : 9
Which two options are IOS conference bridge types in CUCM? (Choose two)
A. CiscoIOS Enhanced Conference Bridge
B. CiscoIOS Standard Conference Bridge
C. CiscoIOS Software Conference Bridge
D. CiscoIOS Hardware Conference Bridge
E. Cisco IOS Conference Bridge
Answer: A,E

Question No : 10
When implementing a global dial plan, which digit manipulation feature in CUCM does Cisco recommend for adding +1 to all outbound calls?
A. Called party transformation.
B. Calling party transformation.
C. Translation pattern.
D. External phone mask.
Answer: A

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-070.html

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ciptv1.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 300-320 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

Best Cisco 300-320 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest practice questions and answers real IT exams. All the Cisco 300-320 exam dumps questions and answers are revised by the http://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 300-320 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

Question No : 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
Answer: D

Question No : 2
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to 300-320 dumps the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Drag the IS-IS fast convergence components on the left to the order in which they occur on the right.
300-320
Answer:
300-320
Explanation:
300-320
Question No : 4
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
Answer: C

Question No : 5
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6
Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
Answer: A

Question No : 7
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 8
When designing remote access to the 300-320 dumps Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 9
Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Answer: A

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-320.html

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/arch-300-320.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 training resources which are the best for clearing 210-060 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Collaboration. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. Cisco 210-060 dumps exam questions CCNA Collaboration products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

QUESTION 1
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060
Calls to National numbers are failing. Using the Branch router 210-060 pdf configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful
A. The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B. The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C. The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D. The digit prefix should be “00”
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text LabelB. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the 210-060 vce PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 6
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco 210-060 exam Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/210-060.html The best and most updated CCNA Collaboration 210-060 training materials, we also want you to be able to access them easily, whenever you want. We provide all our CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets.

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 642-737 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

Latest and most accurate Cisco 642-737 dumps exam study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the Cisco 642-737 dumps exam practice questions and answers 642-737 dumps are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 642-737 exam test quickly and easily at first attempt.

QUESTION 1
What are two of the benefits that the Cisco AnyConnect v3.0 provides to the administrator for client WLAN security configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Provides a reporting mechanism for rouge APs
B. Prevents a user from adding any WLANs
C. Hides the complexity of 802.1X and EAP configuration
D. Supports centralized or distributed client architectures
E. Provides concurrent wired and wireless connectivity
F. Allows users to modify but not delete admin-created profiles
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When using the Standalone Profile Editor in the Cisco AnyConnect v3.0 to create a new NAM profile, which two statements describe the profile becoming active? (Choose two.)
A. selects the new profile from NAM
B. selects “Network Repair” from NAM
C. becomes active after a save of the profile name
D. ensures use of “configuration.xml” as the profile name
E. ensures use of “config.xml” as the profile name
F. ensures use of “nam.xml” as the profile name
Correct Answer: BD
642-737
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the major difference between PEAP and EAP-FAST client authentication?
A. EAP-FAST requires a backend AAA server, and PEAP does not.
B. EAP-FAST is a Cisco-only proprietary protocol, whereas PEAP is an industry-standard protocol.
C. PEAP requires a server-side certificate, while EAP-FAST does not require certificates.
D. PEAP authentication protocol requires a client certificate, and EAP-FAST requires a secure password.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes the EAP Identity Request frame when a wireless client is connecting to a Cisco 642-737 pdf WLC v7.0-based AP WLAN?
A. sourced from the Cisco ACS Server to the client
B. sourced from the client to the Cisco ACS Server
C. sourced from the WLC to the client
D. sourced from the client to the WLC
E. sourced from the AP to the client
F. sourced from the client to the AP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What are the four packet types that are used by EAP? (Choose four.)
A. EAP Type
B. EAP Request
C. EAP Identity
D. EAP Response
E. EAP Success
F. EAP Failure
G. EAP Authentication
Correct Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 6
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the 642-737 vce client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?
A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which EAP types are supported by MAC 10.7 for authentication to a Cisco Unified Wireless Network?
A. LEAP and EAP-Fast only
B. EAP-TLS and PEAP only
C. LEAP, EAP-TLS, and PEAP only
D. LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-TLS, and PEAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Employees adjust their wireless laptop for work at the 642-737 exam office and when away from the office. What are the two most likely security issues for an employee laptop when connected at the corporate WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. loading a freeware customer contact application
B. configuring a static IP address
C. updating the driver
D. adding a coffee shop wireless HotSpot
Correct Answer: AC

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/642-737.html Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 training resources which are the best for clearing 642-737 test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNP Wireless. Cisco CCNP Wireless is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-737 training materials.

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 642-732 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

The best and most updated CCNP Wireless 642-732 training materials, 642-732 exam training material in PDF format. Cisco 642-732 dumps CCNP Wireless is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-732 training materials.

QUESTION 1
You have a customer that is building a new campus of four 3-story buildings that you have just completed the site survey for. The customer is interested in the amount of rack space they will need to allocate in either the building MDF or in the data center for controllers. Each building is going to require 75 APs to support voice and data. How should the controllers be deployed to provide the least number of controllers, the highest redundancy, and the easiest management?
A. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N redundancy method.
B. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N + 1 redundancy method.
C. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + 1 redundancy method.
D. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + 1 redundancy method.
E. Use the distributed deployment method in each building MDF with the N + N +1 redundancy method.
F. Use the centralized deployment method in the data center with the N + N redundancy method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Clients are being disconnected from the WLAN. Which source of interference can cause a Denial of Service?
642-732
A. jammerB. microwave oven
C. Bluetooth devices
D. wireless video camera
E. ZigBee device
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In an outdoor mesh environment, which is the purpose of deploying one of the 642-732 vce access points relatively higher than the others?
A. The MAPs need to be mounted higher than the first hop RAPs so that the mesh units can accomplish radio line of sight.
B. Elevated MAPs are connected to the switches, providing better bandwidth that all the RAPs utilize for client connectivity.
C. An AP deployed as a RAP needs to be mounted in a higher elevation to provide clear connectivity to first hop MAPs.
D. Root APs need clear line of sight to provide the best bandwidth to all of its RAPs, so the higher the better.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You have a client that would like to upgrade their 2.4-GHz point-to-point wireless bridge link between buildings in their facility in Mexico. Currently, they have radios from vendor A that are transmitting at 14 dBm with 6 dBm antennas. They would like to upgrade the radios to 642-732 pdf vendor B but keep the existing antennas. The new radios from vendor B have a fixed transmit power of 7 dBm. How should you proceed?
A. Install the new radios with existing vendor A antennas.
B. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 13 dBm.
C. Install new radios with replacement vendor A antennas rated at 30 dBm.
D. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 29 dBm.
E. Install the new radios with new vendor B antennas rated at 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
Which two issues do access and backhaul radios experience in mesh networks? (Choose two.)
A. The access radio has to connect to two or several points.
B. The access cell usually covers more area at ground level that may have more sources of reflection and interference.
C. The access cell radio range is larger than the backhaul radio range, which causes the backhaul cell radio to suffer from more interference.
D. Backhaul radios are a bottleneck for throughput.
E. RAPs help MAPs avoid coverage holes.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
In which two ways does the type of industry vertical change the 642-732 exam way you prepare to perform a wireless site survey? (Choose two.)
A. In most cases the specific industry vertical impact is not unique and information used to prepare for a site survey can be reused from one vertical to another.
B. The first step in preparing for a site survey for a specific industry vertical is to review the individual industry standards for a WLAN deployment to ensure compliance with all known standards.
C. Each industry vertical has its own specific challenges that need to be considered prior to completion of the WLAN site survey.
D. Prior to performing a site survey for a customer, their specific industry vertical has very little impact on site survey process. Only post-survey design is impacted by the industry vertical.
Correct Answer: BC

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/642-732.html Cisco 642-732 exam CCNP Wireless is omnipresent all around the world, and the business and software solutions provided by them are being embraced by almost all the companies. They have helped in driving thousands of companies on the sure-shot path of success. Comprehensive knowledge of Cisco 642-732 dumps exam CCNP Wireless products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations.

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

Cisco Network SecurityCCNA Security test, and to get certified by Cisco 210-260 exam CCNA Security. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry. Cisco 210-260 dumps exam CCNA Security is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco 210-260 exam CCNA Security Implementing Cisco Network Security training materials.

QUESTION 1
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260
The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the 210-260 pdf given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for 210-260 vce disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260
What is the effect of the given command?
A. It merges authentication and encryption methods to 210-260 exam protect traffic that matches an ACL.
B. It configures the network to use a different transform set between peers.
C. It configures encryption for MD5 HMAC.
D. It configures authentication as AES 256.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to 210-260 dumps block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html Cisco CCNA Security products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. Cisco CCNA Security exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/iins-210-260.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

The best Cisco 400-101 dumps exam CCIE Routing and Switching Written Cisco 400-101 training resources which are the best for clearing CCIE Routing and Switching Written Cisco 400-101 test, and to get certified by Cisco 400-101 dumps exam practice questions and answers online download free try. It is a best choice to accelerate your career as a professional in the Information Technology industry.

Question No : 1
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D

Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network.

Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to 400-101 pdf data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to 400-101 vce it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A

Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the 400-101 exam Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 4
Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
Answer: D

Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the Cisco 400-101 dumps UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccie-routing-switching.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

Comprehensive knowledge of Cisco 200-310 CCDA products is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. The best and most updated Cisco 200-310 dumps exam training materials, Cisco 200-310 exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 pdf Exam Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers.
200-310
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

Cisco 200-310 dumps exam is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCDA 200-310 training materials.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-310-desgn.html

[100% Pass Guarantee] Latest Cisco 200-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers

Posted on by

QUESTION: 1
A router is running three routing processes: RIP, OSPF, and EIGRP, each configured with default characteristics. Each process learns a route to the sameremote network. If there are no static routes to the Cisco 200-101 dumps exam destination and none of the routes were redistributed, which route will be placed in the IP routing table?
A. the route learned through EIGRP
B. the route learned through OSPF
C. the route learned through RIP
D. the route with the lowest metric
E. all three routes with the router load balancing
Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router.
200-101
Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)
A. Corp-1
B. Corp-2
C. Corp-3
D. Corp-4
E. Branch-1
F. Branch-2
Answer: D, F

QUESTION: 3
What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status?
A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.
B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.
C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.
D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4 switchport mode access switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Answer: B, D

QUESTION: 5
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the
access-class command.

Read more: Cisco CCNA exam training material in PDF format, which is a very common format found in all computers and gadgets. Regardless of whichever computer you have, you just need to download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free. Cisco 200-101 dumps exam CCNA is the industry leader in information technology, and getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCNA Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) training materials.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/icnd2b.html