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Easy access to free brain dump test CV0-002 and online practice test

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Where can I find free braindumps for exam CV0-002? Geturnet shares the latest and effective CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative CompTIA exam experts update CV0-002 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full CV0-002 exam dumps selection: (342 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

CompTIA CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 Exam Video

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Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:

CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations.
It assumes a candidate will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a variety of different industries.

It includes new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission-critical systems, now that hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm.

Latest updates CompTIA CV0-002 exam practice questions

A cloud administrator configures a new web server for the site The administrator installs a
wildcard SSL certificate for * When users attempt to access the site, a certificate error is received.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
A. Certificate misconfigured
B. Certificate expired
C. Certificate revoked
D. Certificate not signed
Correct Answer: A

Which of the following will use ICMP to successively check hops between the source and destination?
A. traceroute
B. netstat
C. dig
D. route
Correct Answer: A

A system administrator has been monitoring cloud infrastructure usage over a period of time. The administrator notices
that several hosts are consistently running close to capacity during work hours. To balance the workload across more
hosts the administrator performs a virtual resource migration. Which of the following terms BEST describes the reason
the administrator performed this action?
A. Mobility
B. Utilization
C. Availability
D. Migration
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following may be used to increase data confidentiality when encryption is not an option?
A. LUN masking
B. Zoning
C. Hashing
D. Obfuscation
Correct Answer: D
“To prevent hackers from disassembling data, one of the processes used is obfuscation, which is data scrambling. Data
is purposely scrambled, which renders it unreadable until the obfuscation process is reversed.”

Which of the following will be the BEST option for an administrator to bring VMs online at a warm site after a natural
disaster has occurred at the primary site?
A. Kick off a full backup
B. Request offsite backup tapes
C. Confirm enterprise tape library is functional
D. Verify replication is enabled
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following does the administrator use to consolidate all the VMs into a single IP while allowing access to the
Correct Answer: B

The system administrator created a file sharing service to the cloud for easier access for those working remotely. Which
of the following tests should be performed to determine if services can be compromised?
A. Test storage
B. Test latency
C. Vulnerability assessment
D. Penetration testing
Correct Answer: D

A cloud solution provider offers services solely to the healthcare industry which meets specific security and government
regulations. This is an example of which of the following cloud types?
A. Public
B. Hybrid
C. Private
D. Community
Correct Answer: D

An administrator needs to monitor server applications in the company\\’s data center. Which of the following tools would
the administrator need to accomplish this objective?
Correct Answer: C

A cloud administrator is integrating account logins with Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter for marketing and to increase
market presence using social media platforms. Given this scenario, which of the following components are needed to
match these requirements? (Select TWO).
B. SAML assertion
C. Security token
D. Identity provider
E. Session state
Correct Answer: ABE

Which of the following is a hardening technique that an administrator would perform when creating a standard VM
template that would be used for deploying servers in a production environment?
A. Create a standard user account
B. Disable unneeded services
C. Establish a performance baseline
D. Follow change management process
Correct Answer: D

An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator
run to determine where the connection failure occurs?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. telnet
D. netstat
Correct Answer: B

A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of
the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?lead4pass cv0-002 exam question q13

A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity.
B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity.
C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity.
D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity.
Correct Answer: D

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[100% Pass Guarantee] Update Latest CompTIA CAS-002 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Try

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Lead4pass offers latest CompTIA CASP CAS-002 dumps exam training materials and study guides free try. Update the best CompTIA CASP CAS-002 dumps vce youtube online free demo. dumps pdf practice files. High quality CompTIA CASP CAS-002 dumps exam practice questions and answers, 100% success and guarantee to pass CompTIA CAS-002 exam test easily.

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Latest CompTIA 220-801 dumps pdf materials:

Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CASP
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Exam Code: CAS-002
Total Questions: 532 Q&As
CAS-002 dumps
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks.
Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. CAS-002 dumps
Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: C, D

A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed.
The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details.
Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. CAS-002 dumps During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002 dumps
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working.
Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
Correct Answer: D

Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to do the required level of encryption.
Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A

The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image.
Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: A, C

The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it.
Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. CAS-002 dumps To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization.
Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: C, E, F

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Latest CompTIA Linux+ LX0-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q35)

Which of the following Linux filesy stems pre-allocates a fixed number of in odes at filesy stems? make/creation time, and does NOT generate them as needed?
A. ext3
B. jfs
C. reiserfs
D. xfs
Correct Answer: A

An administrator has sent their current vi process with a PID of 1423 to the background on the command line. Assuming no other processes are in the background, what single command with no options or parameters will bring the vi process to the foreground?
Correct Answer: %1,FG

An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The administrator’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal bootup sequence? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)
Correct Answer: dmesg /bin/dmesg

What file contains kernel level logging information such as output from a network driver module when it is loaded? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)

What file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)

Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A

What command is used to display a file in octal format? LX0-101 dumps (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)

To change the priority of a running process, an administrator should use the command. (Specify command only with no options.)

The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

What is the name of the main configuration file for GRUB? (Please specify the file name with no path information).

An administrator wants the default permissions for their files to be -rw-r—–. How must the administrator set umask?
A. 037
B. 640
C. 038
D. 027
Correct Answer: D

An administrator is writing text in vi. Now the administrator wants to save their changes and exit. Which of the following sequence of inputs will accomplish this? (Select TWO).
A. esc ZZ
B. ctrl :w!
C. esc zz
D. esc :wq!
E. ctrl XX
Correct Answer: AD

Which of the following is the default process priority when a process is started using the nice command?
A. -10
B. 10
C. 20
D. 0
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following RPM commands will output the name of the package which installed the file /etc/exports?
A. rpm -F /etc/exports
B. rpm -qf /etc/exports
C. rpm -Kl /etc/exports
D. rpm -qp /etc/exports
E. rpm -qi /etc/exports
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following commands will print a list of usernames (first column) and their corresponding user id (uid, third column) from /etc/passwd?
A. cut -d: -f1,3 /etc/passwd
B. chop -c 1,3 /etc/passwd
C. tac 1-3 /etc/passwd
D. fmt -u /etc/passwd
Correct Answer: A

The /etc/ file lists currently mounted devices.
Correct Answer: MTAB

Which of the following commands will print the inode usage on each mounted filesystem?
A. du -i
B. df -i
C. lsfs -i
D. printfs -i
Correct Answer: B

To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP

The priority of any process can range from -20 to . LX0-101 dumps (Provide only the numerical value).
Correct Answer: +19,19

Which of the following is true when hard-linked files are present?
A. The output of stat will report “hard” instead of “regular file”
B. The hard-linked files may not be empty
C. Both files will share the same inode
D. Issuing a long directory listing with ls -l will indicate the link with “->”
E. The file permissions will be prefixed by an “h”, eg. hrwxr-x-r-x
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following files should be edited to select the network locations from which Debian installation package files are loaded?
A. /etc/dpkg/dpkg.cfg
B. /etc/apt/apt.conf
C. /etc/apt/apt.conf.d
D. /etc/apt/sources.list
E. /etc/dpkg/dselect.cfg
Correct Answer: D

/dev/sda3 will create a swap area on the device /dev/sda3.

Which of the following commands will print to standard out only the lines that do not begin with # (pound symbol) in the file foobar?
A. /bin/grep ^# foobar
B. /bin/grep -v ^# foobar
C. /bin/grep #$ foobar
D. /bin/grep -v #$ foobar
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following directories contains additional information about installed packages?
A. /usr/share/documentation
B. /usr/local/share/documentation
C. /usr/local/doc
D. /usr/share/doc
E. /usr/packages/doc
Correct Answer: D

Which of the following does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts the floppy disk for all users.
B. It shows all mounted file systems.
C. It opens /etc/fstab to edit.
D. It mounts all file systems listed in /etc/fstab.
Correct Answer: D

How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C

Which of the following commands will show the contents of a gzip compressed tar archive?
A. gzip archive.tgz | tar xvf –
B. tar ztf archive.tgz
C. gzip -d archive.tgz | tar tvf –
D. tar cf archive.tgz
Correct Answer: B

An administrator suspects that a new Ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should the administrator check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drivers? (Please enter only a single command and do not enter duplicate answers in this field.)

Which of the following commands can be used to instruct the init process to switch runlevels? (Select TWO).
A. telinit
B. initctl
C. init
D. reinit
E. runlevel
Correct Answer: AC

All of the following commands will execute the bash script /usr/local/bin/ EXCEPT:
A. source /usr/local/bin/
B. . /usr/local/bin/
C. /bin/bash /usr/local/bin/
D. /usr/local/bin/
E. run /usr/local/bin/
Correct Answer: E

An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. LX0-101 dumps The administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A

The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

Which of the following commands is run LAST during boot on a system with quotas enabled?
A. fsck
B. mount
C. quotacheck
D. quotaon
Correct Answer: D

An administrator has read/write permissions on an ordinary file foo. The administrator has just run ln foo bar. Which of the following would occur if the administrator ran rm foo?
A. foo and bar would both be removed.
B. foo would be removed while bar would remain accessible.
C. foo would be removed. bar would still exist but would be unusable.
D. Both foo and bar would remain accessible.
E. The administrator would be asked whether bar should be removed.
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building.
Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection from unauthorized wired network access?
A. Intrusion Prevention Systems
B. MAC filtering
C. Flood guards
D. 802.1x
Answer: D

IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to SY0-401 pdf a LAN or WLAN.

Question No : 2
A Windows-based computer is infected with malware and is running too slowly to boot and run a malware scanner. Which of the following is the BEST way to run the malware scanner?
A. Kill all system processes
B. Enable the firewall
C. Boot from CD/USB
D. Disable the network connection
Answer: C
Antivirus companies frequently create boot discs you can use to scan and repair your computer. These tools can be burned to a CD or DVD or installed onto a USB drive. You can then restart your computer and boot from the removable media. A special antivirus
environment will load where your computer can be scanned and repaired.

Question No : 3
A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this?
Answer: C

The LMHOSTS file provides a NetBIOS name resolution method that SY0-401 vce can be used for small networks that do not use a WINS server. NetBIOS has been adapted to run on top of TCP/IP, and is still extensively used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments.

Question No : 4
Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Answer: B

Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.

Question No : 5
Multi-tenancy is a concept found in which of the following?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Removable media
C. Cloud computing
D. Data loss prevention
Answer: C

One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This “multitenant” nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Question No : 6
An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points?
A. SSID broadcast
B. MAC filter
D. Antenna placement
Answer: A

Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to SY0-401 dumps reveal their presence.

Question No : 7
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Answer: D

One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This “multitenant” nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Question No : 8
Which of the following would satisfy SY0-401 wireless network implementation requirements to use mutual authentication and usernames and passwords?
Answer: C
PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards.

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