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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-N
Exam Name: Citrix NetScaler 10.5 Essentials and Networking
Exam Code: 1Y0-351
Total Questions: 289 Q&As
1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Why would an engineer want to specify a TCP Profile for a specific service group?
A. To enable use of features like SSL over TCP for that specific service group.
B. To adjust the TCP settings for traffic to and from that specific service group.
C. To use a specific SNIP for traffic to the back-end servers in that service group.
D. To enable features like use source IP, TCP keep alive and TCP buffering for a specific service group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: For security reasons, the NSIP needs to be configured to only be accessible on interface 0/1, which is VLAN 300. 1Y0-351 dumps
The NSIP address is 10.110.4.254 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
How would the network engineer achieve this configuration?
A. set ns config -nsvlan 300 -ifnum 0/1
B. set ns ip 10.110.4.254 -gui ENABLED -vrID 300
C. add vlan 300
set ns ip 10.110.4.254 -mgmtAccess ENABLED
D. set ns config -IPAddress 10.110.4.254 -netmask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 5
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address.
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance.
Which directory should an engineer check to determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. 1Y0-351 dumps The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet clients should flow through the external firewall.
Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer wants to optimize a published load balanced SSL virtual server for WAN connection with long delay, high bandwidth with minimal packet drops.
What would the network engineer use to do this type of optimization for the SSL virtual server?
A. SSL policy
B. TCP profile
C. Compression policy
D. Priority queuing policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Salesforce
Certifications: The Salesforce.com Certified Administrator
Exam Name: Administration Essentials for New Admins
Exam Code: ADM-201
Total Questions: 1013 Q&As
ADM-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? ADM-201 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation? ADM-201 dumps
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CASP
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP)
Exam Code: CAS-002
Total Questions: 532 Q&As
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 1
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks.
Which of the following should the CSO conduct FIRST?
A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendor.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 2
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the proprietary web application before launch. CAS-002 dumps
Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased application? (Select TWO).
A. Code review
B. Sandbox
C. Local proxy
D. Fuzzer
E. Port scanner
Correct Answer: C, D

QUESTION: 3
A developer is determining the best way to improve security within the code being developed.
The developer is focusing on input fields where customers enter their credit card details.
Which of the following techniques, if implemented in the code, would be the MOST effective in protecting the fields from malformed input?
A. Client side input validation
B. Stored procedure
C. Encrypting credit card details
D. Regular expression matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 4
A Chief Financial Officer (CFO) has raised concerns with the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) because money has been spent on IT security infrastructure, but corporate assets are still found to be vulnerable. The business recently funded a patch management product and SOE hardening initiative. A third party auditor reported findings against the business because some systems were missing patches.
Which of the following statements BEST describes this situation?
A. The CFO is at fault because they are responsible for patching the systems and have already been given patch management and SOE hardening products.
B. The audit findings are invalid because remedial steps have already been applied to patch servers and the remediation takes time to complete.
C. The CISO has not selected the correct controls and the audit findings should be assigned to them instead of the CFO.
D. Security controls are generally never 100% effective and gaps should be explained to stakeholders and managed accordingly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 5
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. CAS-002 dumps During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?
A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration
Correct Answer: D
CAS-002 dumps
QUESTION: 6
The security engineer receives an incident ticket from the helpdesk stating that DNS lookup requests are no longer working from the office. The network team has ensured that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity are working.
Which of the following tools would a security engineer use to make sure the DNS server is listening on port 53?
A. PING
B. NESSUS
C. NSLOOKUP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION: 7
Due to a new regulatory requirement, ABC Company must now encrypt all WAN transmissions. When speaking with the network administrator, the security administrator learns that the existing routers have the minimum processing power to do the required level of encryption.
Which of the following solutions minimizes the performance impact on the router?
A. Deploy inline network encryption devices
B. Install an SSL acceleration appliance
C. Require all core business applications to use encryption
D. Add an encryption module to the router and configure IPSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image.
Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six months.
Correct Answer: A, C

QUESTION: 9
The risk manager is reviewing a report which identifies a requirement to keep a business critical legacy system operational for the next two years. The legacy system is out of support because the vendor and security patches are no longer released. Additionally, this is a proprietary embedded system and little is documented and known about it.
Which of the following should the Information Technology department implement to reduce the security risk from a compromise of this system?
A. Virtualize the system and migrate it to a cloud provider.
B. Segment the device on its own secure network.
C. Install an antivirus and HIDS on the system.
D. Hire developers to reduce vulnerabilities in the code.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION: 10
An organization has decided to reduce labor costs by outsourcing back office processing of credit applications to a provider located in another country. Data sovereignty and privacy concerns raised by the security team resulted in the third-party provider only accessing and processing the data via remote desktop sessions. CAS-002 dumps To facilitate communications and improve productivity, staff at the third party has been provided with corporate email accounts that are only accessible via the remote desktop sessions. Email forwarding is blocked and staff at the third party can only communicate with staff within the organization.
Which of the following additional controls should be implemented to prevent data loss? (Select THREE).
A. Implement hashing of data in transit
B. Session recording and capture
C. Disable cross session cut and paste
D. Monitor approved credit accounts
E. User access audit reviews
F. Source IP whitelisting
Correct Answer: C, E, F

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Pass Microsoft Azure Solutions Architect Expert AZ-300 exam, latest AZ-300 dumps exam practice questions and Answers

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Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translates business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations, including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting,and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affects an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

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Latest effective Microsoft Azure Solutions Architect Expert AZ-300 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and
hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016.
You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery.
You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and a Hyper-V site named Site1.
You need to add Host1 to ASR1.
What should you do?
A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the storage account key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server.
D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider.
Download the vault registration key.
Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/hyper-v-azure-tutorial

QUESTION 2
You are building a custom Azure function app to connect to Azure Event Grid.
You need to ensure that resources are allocated dynamically to the function app. Billing must be based on the
executions of the app.
What should you configure when you create the function app?
A. the Windows operating system and the App Service plan hosting plan
B. the Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the B1 pricing tier
C. the Windows operating system and the Consumption plan hosting plan
D. the Docker container and an App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-scale

QUESTION 3
You have an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You install and configure AD Connect to use password hash synchronization as the single sign-on(SSO) method.
Staging mode is enabled.
You review the synchronization results and discover that the Synchronization Service Manager does not display any
sync jobs.
You need to ensure that the synchronization completes successfully.
What should you do?
A. From Azure PowerShell, run Start-AdSyncSycnCycle ?olicyType Initial.
B. Run Azure AD Connect and set the SSO method to Pass-through Authentication.
C. From Synchronization Service Manager, run a full import.
D. Run Azure AD Connect and disable staging mode.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-operations

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Always On availability group on Azure virtual machines. You need to configure an
Azure internal load balancer as a listener for the availability group. What should you do?
A. Create an HTTP health probe on port 1433.
B. Set Session persistence to Client IP.
C. Set Session persistence to Client IP and protocol.
D. Enable Floating IP.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sql/virtual-machines-windows-portal-sql-
alwayson-int-listener

QUESTION 5
You create an Azure Time Series Insights event handler. You need to send data over the network as efficiently as
possible and optimize query performance. What should you do?
A. Create a query plan
B. Send all properties
C. Use a Tag ID
D. Use reference data
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/how-to-shape-query-json

QUESTION 6
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1 that is used by several departments at your company.
Subscription1 contains the resources in the following table.lead4pass az-300 exam question q6

Another administrator deploys a virtual machine named VM1 and an Azure Storage account named Storage2 by using a
single Azure Resource Manager template.
You need to view the template used for the deployment.
From which blade can you view the template that was used for the deployment?
A. Container1
B. VM1
C. Storage2
D. RG1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2.
You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1.
You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2.
What should you do first?
A. From the RSV2 blade, click Backup. From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click
Backup
B. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup
C. From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery
Services vault
D. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm

QUESTION 8
You develop an entertainment application where users can buy and trade virtual real estate. The application must scale
to support thousands of users.
The current architecture includes five Azure virtual machines (VM) that connect to an Azure SQL Database for account
information and Azure Table Storage for backend services. A user interacts with these components in the cloud at any
given time.
Routing Service ?Routes a request to the appropriate service and must not persist data across sessions.
Account Service ?Stores and manages all account information and authentication and requires data to persist across
sessions
User Service ?Stores and manages all user information and requires data to persist across sessions.
Housing Network Service ?Stores and manages the current real-estate economy and requires data to persist across
sessions.
Trade Service ?Stores and manages virtual trade between accounts and requires data to persist across sessions.
Due to volatile user traffic, a microservices solution is selected for scale agility.
You need to migrate to a distributed microservices solution on Azure Service Fabric.
Solution: Create a Service Fabric Cluster with a stateful Reliable Service for Routing Service. Deploy a Guest
Executable to Service Fabric for each component.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription that contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains 100 virtual machines.
Your company has three cost centers named Manufacturing, Sales, and Finance.
You need to associate each virtual machine to a specific cost center.
What should you do?
A. Add an extension to the virtual machines
B. Modify the inventory settings of the virtual machine
C. Assign tags to the virtual machines
D. Configure locks for the virtual machine
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-getting-started
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-using-tags

QUESTION 10
You are developing a speech-enabled home automation control bot.
The bot interprets some spoken words incorrectly.
You need to improve the spoken word recognition for the bot.
What should you implement?
A. The Skype for Business Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
B. The Web Chat Channel and Speech priming using a Bing Speech Service and LUIS app.
C. The Skype Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
D. The Cortana Channel and use scorable dialogs for improving conversation flow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the technical requirement for VM4. What should you create and configure?
A. an Azure Event Hub
B. an Azure Notification Hub
C. an Azure Logic App
D. an Azure Service Bus
Correct Answer: A
Scenario: Create a workflow to send an email message when the settings of VM4 are modified.
You can start an automated logic app workflow when specific events happen in Azure resources or third-party
resources. These resources can publish those events to an Azure event grid. In turn, the event grid pushes those
events to subscribers that have queues, webhooks, or event hubs as endpoints. As a subscriber, your logic app can
wait for those events from the event grid before running automated workflows to perform tasks – without you writing any
code.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-grid/monitor-virtual-machine-changes-event-grid-logic-app

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a Microsoft Office 365 SMTP server.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto- configure-notifications

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.

lead4pass az-300 exam question q13

Store1 contains a file share named Data. Data contains 5,000 files.
You need to synchronize the files in Data to an on-premises server named Server1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Download an automation script
B. Create a sync group
C. Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
D. Create a container instance
E. Register Server1
Correct Answer: BCE
Step 1 (C): Install the Azure File Sync agent on Server1
The Azure File Sync agent is a downloadable package that enables Windows Server to be synced with an Azure file
share
Step 2 (E): Register Server1.
Register Windows Server with Storage Sync Service
Registering your Windows Server with a Storage Sync Service establishes a trust relationship between your server (or
cluster) and the Storage Sync Service.
Step 3 (B): Create a sync group and a cloud endpoint.
A sync group defines the sync topology for a set of files. Endpoints within a sync group are kept in sync with each other.
A sync group must contain one cloud endpoint, which represents an Azure file share and one or more server endpoints.
A server endpoint represents a path on registered server.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-sync-files-deployment-guide

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA
Exam Name: Implementing NetScaler 10 for Networking and Traffic Optimization
Exam Code: 1Y0-A28
Total Questions: 123 Q&As
1Y0-A28 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which solution meets the criteria for reducing the general IT costs for the Research and Training user group to access their applications?
A. VM Hosted applications
B. Streamed server OS machines
C. Dedicated desktop OS machines
D. Pooled desktop OS machine with Personal vDisk
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: Users from a remote research lab have very limited WAN bandwidth to their nearest datacenter. The users need to print over the WAN.
What should an architect recommend to optimize printer bandwidth?
A. Optimize WAN traffic through CloudBridge.
B. Increase the WAN bandwidth through a WAN link upgrade.
C. Restrict overall session bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
D. Restrict printer redirection bandwidth through a HDX bandwidth policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The architect recommended pooled desktop OS machines with Personal vDisks for the Nurses, Imaging, and Radiology user group. How should an engineer implement antivirus software on these desktop OS machines?
A. Install the antivirus software into the base image.
B. Deploy the antivirus package as an App-V application.
C. Deploy the antivirus software through a Group Policy startup script.
D. Install the antivirus software in the master Personal vDisk as a user-installed application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which endpoint devices must be replaced to support the Streamed VHD method of desktop delivery?
A. Windows 7
B. Windows XP
C. Linux thin clients
D. PCs running Internet Explorer 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
The company plans to reduce their storage requirement by using thin provisioning with XenServer hosts. 1Y0-A28 dumps Which storage option should the architect verify for capability in the current environment?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which consideration is unnecessary for the PositivelyPeople application in the new environment?
A. File security
B. Secure remote access
C. Access to legacy mainframe
D. Support for secured print jobs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Given the current desktop build process, what should an architect recommend on the new virtual platform for this environment while minimizing the number of required management servers?
A. Continue with current process
B. Use Ghost to clone a master image
C. Use Machine Creation Services to clone a master image
D. Use Provisioning Services servers to create a master target device
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two budgetary items should the architect consider to meet the needs of remote users in the new environment? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft licenses
B. NetScaler infrastructure
C. Additional mobile devices
D. Two-factor authentication solution
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Some management staff print large documents over WAN connections. What must the architect consider to optimize printing to a local printer from laptops?
A. Configure session printers
B. Configure Universal Print Server
C. Disable ‘Direct connection to print servers’
D. Allow mapping to all client printers to session
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two options should the architect recommend to enable two-factor authentication for remote users? (Choose two.)
A. Configure Citrix Single Sign-On.
B. Configure LDAP authentication on NetScaler.
C. Configure RADIUS authentication on NetScaler.
D. Configure ‘Username and Password’ in StoreFront.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
An architect is assessing the existing backup strategy and recommending changes to suit the new virtual desktop environment. 1Y0-A28 dumps
Which two critical components should the architect recommend for nightly backup, as they cannot be easily recreated in the event of a disaster? (Choose two.)
A. User’s Personal vDisks
B. Pooled desktop master image
C. Servers hosting StoreFront roles
D. Servers hosting Delivery Controller roles
E. SQL Server hosting the XenDesktop database
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which current infrastructure limitation prevents doctors in London from working remotely if the London datacenter shuts down unexpectedly?
A. There are no roaming user profiles.
B. There is no failover datacenter for London.
C. There are no backups of the SQL Server databases.
D. There is no disaster recovery plan for the mobile workforce.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1 CORRECT TEXT
Configure autofs to make sure after login successfully, it has the home directory autofs, which is shared as /rhome/ldapuser40 at the ip: 172.24.40.10. and it also requires that, other ldap users can use the home directory normally.

Answer:
# chkconfig autofs on
# cd /etc/
# vim /etc/auto.master
/rhome /etc/auto.ldap
# cp auto.misc auto.ldap
# vim auto.ladp
ldapuser40 -rw,soft,intr 172.24.40.10:/rhome/ldapuser40
* -rw,soft,intr 172.16.40.10:/rhome/&
# service autofs stop
# server autofs start
# showmount -e 172.24.40.10
# su – ladpuser40

QUESTION NO: 2 CORRECT TEXT
Configure the system synchronous as 172.24.40.10.

Answer:
Graphical Interfaces:
System–>Administration–>Date & Time
OR
# system-config-date
ex200 dumps
QUESTION NO: 3 CORRECT TEXT  EX200 dumps
Change the logical volume capacity named vo from 190M to 300M. and the size of the floating range should set between 280 and 320. (This logical volume has been mounted in advance.)

Answer:
# vgdisplay
(Check the capacity of vg, if the capacity is not enough, need to create pv , vgextend , lvextend)
# lvdisplay (Check lv)
# lvextend -L +110M /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
(Verify)
——————————————————————————- (Decrease lvm)
# umount /media
# fsck -f /dev/vg2/lv2
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg2/lv2 100M
# lvreduce -L 100M /dev/vg2/lv2
# mount -a
# lvdisplay (Verify)
OR
# e2fsck -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# resize2fs -f /dev/vg1/lvm02
# mount /dev/vg1/lvm01 /mnt
# lvreduce -L 1G -n /dev/vg1/lvm02
# lvdisplay (Verify)

QUESTION NO: 4 CORRECT TEXT
Create a volume group, and set 16M as a extends. And divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv, make it as ext4 file system, and mounted automatically under /mnt/data.

Answer:
# pvcreate /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# vgcreate -s 16M vg1 /dev/sda7 /dev/sda8
# lvcreate -l 50 -n lvm02
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvm02
# blkid /dev/vg1/lv1
# vim /etc/fstab
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
UUID=xxxxxxxx /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# vim /etc/fstab
# mount -a
# mount
(Verify)

QUESTION NO: 5 CORRECT TEXT
Upgrading the kernel as 2.6.36.7.1, and configure the system to Start the default kernel, keep the old kernel available. EX200 dumps

Answer:
# cat /etc/grub.conf
# cd /boot
# lftp it
# get dr/dom/kernel-xxxx.rpm
# rpm -ivh kernel-xxxx.rpm
# vim
/etc/grub.conf
default=0

QUESTION NO: 6 CORRECT TEXT
Create a 512M partition, make it as ext4 file system, mounted automatically under/mnt/data and which take effect automatically at boot-start.

Answer:
# fdisk /dev/vda
# partprobe /dev/vda
# mkfs -t ext4 /dev/vda5
# mkdir -p /data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vda5 /data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a

QUESTION NO: 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create a volume group, and set 8M as a extends. Divided a volume group containing 50 extends on volume group lv (lvshare), make it as ext4 file system, and mounted automatically under /mnt/data. And the size of the floating range should set between 380M and 400M.

Answer:
# fdisk
# partprobe
# pvcreate /dev/vda6
# vgcreate -s 8M vg1 /dev/vda6 -s
# lvcreate -n lvshare -l 50 vg1 -l
# mkfs.ext4 /dev/vg1/lvshare
# mkdir -p /mnt/data
# vim /etc/fstab
/dev/vg1/lvshare /mnt/data ext4 defaults 0 0
# mount -a
# df -h

QUESTION NO: 8 CORRECT TEXT
Download ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso to /root, and EX200 dumps mounted automatically under/media/cdrom and which take effect automatically at boot-start.

Answer:
# cd /root; wget ftp://192.168.0.254/pub/boot.iso
# mkdir -p /media/cdrom
# vim /etc/fstab
/root/boot.iso /media/cdrom iso9660 defaults,loop 0 0
# mount -a
mount [-t vfstype] [-o options] device dir

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QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in each column.
Hot Area:
70-534
Correct Answer:
70-534
QUESTION 4       70-534
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary files.
You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20 GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Your company recently deployed a new Active Directory forest named contoso .com. The first domain controller in the forest runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to identify the time-to-live (TTL) value for domain referrals to the NETLOGON and SYSVOL shared folders.
Which tool should you use?
A. Ultrasound
B. Replmon
C. Dfsdiag
D. Frsutil
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
What does DFSDiag do?
dfsdiag /testreferral:
Perform specific tests, depending on the type of referral being used. 70-412 dumps
* For Sysvol and Netlogon referrals perform the validation for Domain referrals and that it’s TTL has the default value (900s).

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains a sin- gle domain. The domain contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the fol- lowing table.
70-412 dumps
You need to update the schema to support a domain controller that will run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On which server should you run adprep.exe?
A. Server1
B. DC3
C. DC2
D. DC1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Upgrade Domain Controllers to Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012
You can use adprep.exe on domain controllers that run 64-bit versions of Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2 to upgrade to Windows Server 2012. You cannot upgrade domain controllers that run Windows Server 2003 or 32-bit versions of Windows Server 2008. To re- place them, install domain controllers that run a later version of Windows Server in the domain, and then remove the domain controllers that Windows Server 2003.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso. com and adatum .com. Contoso .com contains one domain. Adatum .com contains a child domain named child .adatum .- com.
Contoso .com has a one-way forest trust to adatum .com. 70-412 dumps Selective authentication is enabled on the forest trust.
Several user accounts are migrated from child .adatum .com to adatum .com. Users report that after the migration, they fail to access resources in contoso .com. The users suc- cessfully accessed the resources in contoso .com before the accounts were migrated.
You need to ensure that the migrated users can access the resources in contoso .com.
What should you do?
A. Replace the existing forest trust with an external trust.
B. Run netdom and specify the /quarantine attribute.
C. Disable SID filtering on the existing forest trust.
D. Disable selective authentication on the existing forest trust.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Security Considerations for Trusts
Need to gain access to the resources in contoso .com
Disabling SID Filter Quarantining on External Trusts
Although it reduces the security of your forest (and is therefore not recommended), you can dis- able SID filter quarantining for an external trust by using the Netdom .exe tool. You should con- sider disabling SID filter quarantining only in the following situations:
* Users have been migrated to the trusted domain with their SID histories preserved, and you want to grant them access to resources in the trusting domain based on the SID history attribute.
Incorrect:
not B. Enables administrators to manage Active Directory domains and trust relationships from the command prompt, /quarantine Sets or clears the domain quarantine not D. Selective authentication over a forest trust restricts access to only those users in a trusted forest who have been explicitly given authentication permissions to computer objects (resource computers) that reside in the trusting forest.

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso .com. The forest contains three domains.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum .com.
You discover that users in adatum .com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso .- com.
You need to ensure that the adatum .com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the do- main that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm. 70-412 dumps
* You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations.
Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way.

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QUESTION 1
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time.
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN). Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website. 70-532 dumps
Which approach should you use?
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to configure storage for the solution.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations.
Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
The website does not receive alerts quickly enough.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you do?
A. Enable automatic scaling for the website.
B. Manually Increase the instance count for the worker role.
C. Increase the amount of swap memory for the VM instance.
D. Set the monitoring level to Verbose for the worker role.
E. Enable automatic scaling for the worker role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts.
You need to ensure that the website is always responsive. 70-532 dumps
What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14: <sessionState timeout-“86400″ />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08: <add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14: <sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?
70-410 dumps
A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.  70-410 dumps
70-410 dumps
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6           70-410 dumps
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latestversion of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU. 70-410 dumps
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

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